Press "Enter" to skip to content
GMAT Club

GMAT Question of the Day (June 29)

Jeff 0

Math

If x is an integer and |1-x| \lt 2 then which of the following must be true?

A. x is not a prime number
B. x^2+x is not a prime number
C. x is positive
D. Number of distinct positive factors of x+2 is a prime number
E. x is not a multiple of an odd prime number

Question Discussion & Explanation
Correct Answer - D - (click and drag your mouse to see the answer)

GMAT Daily Deals
  • Manhattan GMAT: 99 percentile teachers and superior curriculum at a more affordable price. Save @ GMAT Club. Save $350!
  • There's still a little time to save $50 on mbaMission Application Writing Bootcamps - Learn More. Learn More
  • The Princeton Review teaches both material & testing strategies - not just the answers. Save $350 @ GMAT Club. Learn More!
  • Like our Question of the Day? Sign up for  Kaplan's Free Question a Day

Verbal

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.

Question Discussion & Explanation

Correct Answer - A - (click and drag your mouse to see the answer)

Like these questions? Get the GMAT Club question collection: online at GMAT Club OR on your Kindle OR on your iPhone/iPad

Browse all GMAT Questions of the Day

Subscribe to GMAT Question of the Day: E-mail | RSS