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# a+b)^2 * (b-c)] / >= 0 ? 1- a>b 2- b>c

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GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4313
Followers: 27

Kudos [?]: 217 [0], given: 0

a+b)^2 * (b-c)] / >= 0 ? 1- a>b 2- b>c [#permalink]  06 Nov 2004, 18:08
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Question Stats:

0% (00:00) correct 0% (00:00) wrong based on 0 sessions
[(a+b)^2 * (b-c)] / [(a-b)^3 * (b-c)^3] >= 0 ?

1- a>b
2- b>c
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Best Regards,

Paul

Senior Manager
Joined: 19 May 2004
Posts: 291
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 8 [0], given: 0

I got A.

(a+b)^2 (b-C) / (a-b)^3 (b-c)^3 =
= Positive / (a-b)^3.

So knowing that a>b is enough to know that the whole thing is positive.
Senior Manager
Joined: 19 Oct 2004
Posts: 318
Location: Missouri, USA
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 22 [0], given: 0

I got it as C

from 1) we dont get any info about the relation betn b and c -- hence insufficient.

2) no info about a and b--- insufficient.

combining, we get a>b>c.
plug in a=-1, b=-2, c=-3
we get LHS >0.
hence C.
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Let's get it right!!!!

Director
Joined: 16 Jun 2004
Posts: 893
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 19 [0], given: 0

I go with C. We need to know that b is not equal to C or a is not equal to b. If a=b or b=c, then the expression will be undefined.

So, C.
GMAT Club Legend
Joined: 15 Dec 2003
Posts: 4313
Followers: 27

Kudos [?]: 217 [0], given: 0

OA on this one is A. It is also what I had but because of the reason mentioned by venksune, I believe that we need to know that b is different from c otherwise the expression is undefined. If the question clearly stated at first that a, b, and c are different numbers, then A would have been good because all we care for, as Dookie mentioned, is the expression (a-b)^3 which could give a negative/positive answer. In retrospect, C seems to be the answer here. By the way, this is from Kaplan800.
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Best Regards,

Paul

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