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The way I understand it, you cannot conclude that (a+b)^2/(a+b)^2 = 1 because a, b, and c are not defined as positive integers. Therefore, if a = -b, then (a+b)^2 would = 0 and the equation would be undefined.
Thanks guys. Yes thats exactly where I saw it. I just couldn't agree with the answer at that time. But now its clearer. If I see this kind of problem in real GMAT I will be pretty happy, since it would imply that I am doing pretty well so far
I can put it in this way,
b/c = (a+b)^2/(a+b)^2 - 1
hence a and b is not defined as +ve or -ve, but still we'll always get square term as +ve, if it's not integer, then also we can make it 0, becoz, 2/3*3/2 is always 1.
Hence b/c = 1-1 = 0, so B=0.
Hence B should be the soluition.