Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!

Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 350,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club

Registration gives you:

Tests

Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.

Applicant Stats

View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more

Books/Downloads

Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
24 Jan 2012, 23:22

12

This post received KUDOS

15

This post was BOOKMARKED

00:00

A

B

C

D

E

Difficulty:

95% (hard)

Question Stats:

23% (02:22) correct
77% (01:42) wrong based on 614 sessions

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year.

(2) The difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year.

Re: DS - Percentage [#permalink]
25 Jan 2012, 02:10

13

This post received KUDOS

Expert's post

3

This post was BOOKMARKED

devinawilliam83 wrote:

Why is the answer to this A and not D?

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

Given: {Income}={salary}+{commission}. Question basically asks: is {salary}>{commission}?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year --> 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission} --> {salary}=2{commission} --> {salary}>{commission}. Sufficient.

(2) The difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year --> |{salary}-{commission}|=0.5{salary}, notice that {salary}-{commission} is in absolute value sign ||, meaning that we can have two cases:

A. {salary}-{commission}=0.5{salary} --> 0.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}>{commission}, thus the answer would be YES; Or: A. {commission}-{salary}=0.5{salary} --> 1.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}<{commission}, thus the answer would be No. Not sufficient.

Re: A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
21 Jun 2012, 03:04

5

This post received KUDOS

Expert's post

jaswinder46 wrote:

please explain why salary - commission is in absoulute value sign?

Because if {salary}>{commission} then {salary}-{commission}=0.5{salary}, since 0.5{salary}>0.

But if {salary}<{commission} then {commission}-{salary}=0.5{salary}.

So, the second statement, which says that "the difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year" should be expressed as |{salary}-{commission}|=0.5{salary}. _________________

Re: DS - Percentage [#permalink]
14 Jun 2013, 03:14

1

This post was BOOKMARKED

Bunuel wrote:

devinawilliam83 wrote:

Why is the answer to this A and not D?

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

Given: {Income}={salary}+{commission}. Question basically asks: is {salary}>{commission}?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year --> 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission} --> {salary}=2{commission} --> {salary}>{commission}. Sufficient.

(2) The difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year --> |{salary}-{commission}|=0.5{salary}, notice that {salary}-{commission} is in absolute value sign ||, meaning that we can have two cases:

A. {salary}-{commission}=0.5{salary} --> 0.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}>{commission}, thus the answer would be YES; Or: A. {commission}-{salary}=0.5{salary} --> 1.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}<{commission}, thus the answer would be No. Not sufficient.

Answer: A.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunnel, If i do assume that C>S, this will contradict information given in A.

Re: DS - Percentage [#permalink]
14 Jun 2013, 03:16

Expert's post

cumulonimbus wrote:

Bunuel wrote:

devinawilliam83 wrote:

Why is the answer to this A and not D?

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

Given: {Income}={salary}+{commission}. Question basically asks: is {salary}>{commission}?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year --> 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission} --> {salary}=2{commission} --> {salary}>{commission}. Sufficient.

(2) The difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year --> |{salary}-{commission}|=0.5{salary}, notice that {salary}-{commission} is in absolute value sign ||, meaning that we can have two cases:

A. {salary}-{commission}=0.5{salary} --> 0.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}>{commission}, thus the answer would be YES; Or: A. {commission}-{salary}=0.5{salary} --> 1.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}<{commission}, thus the answer would be No. Not sufficient.

Answer: A.

Hope it's clear.

Hi Bunnel, If i do assume that C>S, this will contradict information given in A.

Is this an Official question?

What do you mean by official question? Check the tags. It's MGMAT. _________________

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base s [#permalink]
17 Aug 2013, 02:16

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Was the salesman's commission larger than his base salary last year?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's total income (salary plus commission) would have been 10 percent higher last year.

(2) The absolute difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year. _________________

Re: A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base s [#permalink]
17 Aug 2013, 02:19

Expert's post

Stiv wrote:

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Was the salesman's commission larger than his base salary last year?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's total income (salary plus commission) would have been 10 percent higher last year.

(2) The absolute difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year.

Re: DS - Percentage [#permalink]
17 Aug 2013, 10:01

Bunuel wrote:

devinawilliam83 wrote:

Why is the answer to this A and not D?

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

Given: {Income}={salary}+{commission}. Question basically asks: is {salary}>{commission}?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year --> 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission} --> {salary}=2{commission} --> {salary}>{commission}. Sufficient.

I don't know how answer choice A can be sufficient. See example below.

Using your statement: 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission}

1.1 s + 1.1 c = s + 1.3 c ; for sake of simplicity, let's say that salary = 100 and commission = 100

1.1 (100) + 1.1 (100) = 100 + 1.3 (100)

110 + 110 = 100 + 130

220 < 230 ; Insufficient

^^ I'm confused, do we have to take a salary that's greater than commission to solve the question "Is salary > commission?"

Another way I thought of it was...

If instead of plugging in values, is you decide isolate salary (s) and commission (c) using your formula in bold, it would be:

.10 s = .02 c

In this case, for all positive values where salary > commission, it holds true. Sufficient.

Can someone please help explain how Bunuel got salary = 2 commission? What am I doing wrong above? Am I missing something?

~ Im2bz2p345

Last edited by Im2bz2p345 on 17 Aug 2013, 10:16, edited 2 times in total.

Re: A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
19 Aug 2014, 01:25

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email. _________________

Re: A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
16 Feb 2015, 10:39

Bunuel wrote:

devinawilliam83 wrote:

Why is the answer to this A and not D?

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base salary plus a commission on the sales he makes during the year. Did the salesman's base salary account for more than half of the salesman's yearly income last year?

Given: {Income}={salary}+{commission}. Question basically asks: is {salary}>{commission}?

(1) If the amount of the commission had been 30 percent higher, the salesman's income would have been 10 percent higher last year --> 1.1({salary}+{commission})={salary}+1.3{commission} --> {salary}=2{commission} --> {salary}>{commission}. Sufficient.

(2) The difference between the amount of the salesman's base salary and the amount of the commission was equal to 50 percent of the salesman's base salary last year --> |{salary}-{commission}|=0.5{salary}, notice that {salary}-{commission} is in absolute value sign ||, meaning that we can have two cases:

A. {salary}-{commission}=0.5{salary} --> 0.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}>{commission}, thus the answer would be YES; Or: A. {commission}-{salary}=0.5{salary} --> 1.5{salary}={commission} --> {salary}<{commission}, thus the answer would be No. Not sufficient.

Answer: A.

Hope it's clear.

Dear Bunuel,

I'm not sure if you need to consider two cases here based on the question's second statement. It is like stating " if the difference between A and B is 4, I would consider A-B = 4 and not |A-B| =4.

The similar question, which you used to merge the topic clearly specifies that the absolute difference between the base salary and the commission is..., there I can understand the two cases but not for the question above, where it does not state anything about the absolute difference.

A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
16 Feb 2015, 12:48

My 2 cents from question stem: commission + base = 1

for statement 1, -> 1.3base + commission = 1.1 plus 1base + commission = 1 -> 0.3 base = 0.1 -> base = 33% -> sufficient

for statement 2, -> base - commission = 0.5base or -> commission - base = 0.5base -> base is equal 50% or 33% -> not greater than 50% -> not suffificent

-> Correct Answer is A

JMO, please correct me if there is any logical flaw. Thanks very much!

Last edited by cherryli2015 on 16 Feb 2015, 18:37, edited 1 time in total.

Re: A certain salesman's yearly income is determined by a base [#permalink]
16 Feb 2015, 17:30

Expert's post

Hi santorasantu,

The prompt never stated whether the base salary was larger than the commission or the commission was larger than the base salary, so we CANNOT assume that the base salary is bigger just because it was mentioned first in the sentence. The word "difference" implies that one of them IS bigger, but we don't know which one. THAT is why Bunuel addressed it.

When I wrote this original post exactly nine months ago I had no idea how things would work out and more than a little self-doubt. I was still depressed and...

YESSSSS!!!! Yesterday Duke beat Gonzaga, 52-66, and qualified for the final four!!! (what we would call semifinals in the rest of the world). For those who don’t...