Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!

Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 350,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club

Registration gives you:

Tests

Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.

Applicant Stats

View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more

Books/Downloads

Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

I understand how to get the denominator just fine, but I am missing something on the numerator. I read the answer, but something just isn't clicking.

Thanks!

Welcome to Gmat Club forum.

It would be easier to calculate the probability of opposite event and subtract it from 1. Opposite event: 0 tail, 1 tail, 6 tails.

Probability of getting no tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\);

Probability of getting 1 tail: \(6C1*\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{6}{64}\), we must multiply by 6C1 or by 6 as tail can occur for any flip from 6, hence in 6 ways;

Probability of getting 6 tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\)

I understand how to get the denominator just fine, but I am missing something on the numerator. I read the answer, but something just isn't clicking.

Thanks!

Welcome to Gmat Club forum.

It would be easier to calculate the probability of opposite event and subtract it from 1. Opposite event: 0 tail, 1 tail, 6 tails.

Probability of getting no tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\);

Probability of getting 1 tail: \(6C1*\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{6}{64}\), we must multiply by 6C1 or by 6 as tail can occur for any flip from 6, hence in 6 ways;

Probability of getting 6 tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\)

I understand how to get the denominator just fine, but I am missing something on the numerator. I read the answer, but something just isn't clicking.

Thanks!

Welcome to Gmat Club forum.

It would be easier to calculate the probability of opposite event and subtract it from 1. Opposite event: 0 tail, 1 tail, 6 tails.

Probability of getting no tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\);

Probability of getting 1 tail: \(6C1*\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{6}{64}\), we must multiply by 6C1 or by 6 as tail can occur for any flip from 6, hence in 6 ways;

Probability of getting 6 tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\)

I understand how to get the denominator just fine, but I am missing something on the numerator. I read the answer, but something just isn't clicking.

Thanks!

Welcome to Gmat Club forum.

It would be easier to calculate the probability of opposite event and subtract it from 1. Opposite event: 0 tail, 1 tail, 6 tails.

Probability of getting no tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\);

Probability of getting 1 tail: \(6C1*\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{6}{64}\), we must multiply by 6C1 or by 6 as tail can occur for any flip from 6, hence in 6 ways;

Probability of getting 6 tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\)

For more on probability and combinatorics please refer to the link: GMAT MATH BOOK

Hi Bunuel,

I understand the numerator part. 2C6 + 3C6 + 4C6 + 5C6 = 56

but how to calculate denominator part. I mean how can i count total no of combinations. I am not getting 64 . Like in normal cases if we calculate for 6 ball, we take 6! as total no of combinations. Please help _________________

I understand how to get the denominator just fine, but I am missing something on the numerator. I read the answer, but something just isn't clicking.

Thanks!

Welcome to Gmat Club forum.

It would be easier to calculate the probability of opposite event and subtract it from 1. Opposite event: 0 tail, 1 tail, 6 tails.

Probability of getting no tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\);

Probability of getting 1 tail: \(6C1*\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{6}{64}\), we must multiply by 6C1 or by 6 as tail can occur for any flip from 6, hence in 6 ways;

Probability of getting 6 tails: \(\frac{1}{2^6}=\frac{1}{64}\)

For more on probability and combinatorics please refer to the link: GMAT MATH BOOK

Hi Bunuel,

I understand the numerator part. 2C6 + 3C6 + 4C6 + 5C6 = 56

but how to calculate denominator part. I mean how can i count total no of combinations. I am not getting 64 . Like in normal cases if we calculate for 6 ball, we take 6! as total no of combinations. Please help

Each coin can land on heads or tails, so 2 ways. We have 6 coins, so total number of outcomes is 2*2*2*2*2*2 = 2^6. _________________

Hey, everyone. After a hectic orientation and a weeklong course, Managing Groups and Teams, I have finally settled into the core curriculum for Fall 1, and have thus found...

MBA Acceptance Rate by Country Most top American business schools brag about how internationally diverse they are. Although American business schools try to make sure they have students from...

After I was accepted to Oxford I had an amazing opportunity to visit and meet a few fellow admitted students. We sat through a mock lecture, toured the business...