I believe the answer is A.
This is a simple question asked in a confusing way.
The question is asking "If I have a certain number of people each choose 1 of the first positive integers, did any of the people choose the same number?" Statement 1 tells us that the number of people choosing a number was greater than 40. We know that as long as the number of people making a choice is greater than or equal to 30, then duplicates must have been chosen. So Statement 1 is sufficient.
Statement 2 only tells that the number of people making a selection is less than 70. This could be true if 5 people selected or if 65 people selected. Because we don't know for certain, Statement 2 is insufficient.
Because 1 statement is sufficient and the other is not, we do not need to discuss the statements together.
A number of people each wrote down one of the first 30 positive integers. Were any of the integers written down by more than one of the people
1 - The number of people who wrote down an integer was greater than 40
2 - The number of people who wrote down an integer was less than 70
Please explain thx
J Allen Morris
**I'm pretty sure I'm right, but then again, I'm just a guy with his head up his a$$.
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