A professional gambler has won 40% of his 25 poker games for : Quant Question Archive [LOCKED]
Check GMAT Club Decision Tracker for the Latest School Decision Releases http://gmatclub.com/AppTrack

 It is currently 20 Jan 2017, 13:01

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# A professional gambler has won 40% of his 25 poker games for

Author Message
Intern
Joined: 20 Sep 2007
Posts: 4
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

A professional gambler has won 40% of his 25 poker games for [#permalink]

### Show Tags

28 Sep 2007, 04:23
This topic is locked. If you want to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum.

A professional gambler has won 40% of his 25 poker games for the week so far. If all of a sudden, his luck changes and he begins winning 80% of the time, how many more games must he play to end up winning 60% of all his games for the week?

I'm little confused by this question. The first part says he played 25 games for the week and he won 40% so he won 10 games. I don't understand the second line and how it will fit to give me an answer. When it says 80% of time, what does that mean? What does that 80% of time relate to next week, next two weeks, next month ??????

Manager
Joined: 22 May 2007
Posts: 115
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 2 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

28 Sep 2007, 04:32
for the week so far

the week has not ended yet
VP
Joined: 08 Jun 2005
Posts: 1146
Followers: 7

Kudos [?]: 189 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

28 Sep 2007, 04:41
40% means that for every 2 games he wins he lose 3.
80% means that for every 4 games he wins he lose 1.

after 25 games at 40% ---> won 10 and lost 15

after x more games at 80% ---> won (x/5)*4 and lost x/5

so in order to get 60% total winning:

(10+(x/5)*4)/(25+x) = 3/5

(10+4x/5)/(25+x) = 3/5

5*(10+4x/5) = 75+x

50+4x = 75+x

x = 25

x = 50 ---> he has to play 50 games.

first 25 games ---> win 10 lose 15 ---> 10/25 = 40%
then 25 games ---> win 20 lose 5 ---> 20/25 = 80%

total 50 games ---> win 30 lose 20 ---> 30/50 = 60%

Intern
Joined: 20 Sep 2007
Posts: 4
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

28 Sep 2007, 10:27
Thanks killersquirrel and ronron.. Now I got it.
28 Sep 2007, 10:27
Display posts from previous: Sort by