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# An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to

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An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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01 Oct 2012, 11:12
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An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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02 Oct 2012, 10:36
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I say C

Conclusion is -Listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.
This is Causality Question: "Watching television causes -> Sleeplessness"
To Weaken this we require "Reversal of Causality " i.e those who have sleeplessness prefer watching tv rather than Listening music.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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01 Oct 2012, 11:50
vmdce129907 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss

For me the answer would be (B). its the habit of reading thats making people to sleep not their listening to classical music....Thus this weakens the conclusion.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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01 Oct 2012, 12:01
I say B.

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does. >> Just a fact. Neutral.

(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime. >> Correct. Though they enjoy classical music, they do not listen to it before bedtime. This shatters the conclusion.

(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not. >> Supports the conclusion.

(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep. >> Supports the conclusion.

(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds. >> Supports the conclusion.

What is the OA?
What is the source?
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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02 Oct 2012, 02:23
vmdce129907 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss

Option C.
It is not given as a premise that watching tv or listening to classical songs induces sleep.
Since people who watch tv have the problem of sleeplessness it is quite prudent that they must take sleeping pills irrespective of whether they watch tv or not.

Hence it destroys the assumption that watching tv causes sleeplessness and thereby weakening the conclusion.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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02 Oct 2012, 07:09
piyatiwari wrote:
I say B.

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does. >> Just a fact. Neutral.

(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime. >> Correct. Though they enjoy classical music, they do not listen to it before bedtime. This shatters the conclusion.

(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not. >> Supports the conclusion.

(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep. >> Supports the conclusion.

(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds. >> Supports the conclusion.

What is the OA?
What is the source?

Here you are assuming that reading book before bedtime causes sleep. But it's no where mentioned.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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11 Oct 2012, 23:37
I vote for B .
B provide another reason for people who have good sleep, not because of listening to classical music. Therefore, B weaken the premise that classical music helps people have good sleep
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 00:00
None of the answer choices seem very conducive to me. However, I would choose C with great disdain :p . If the tv watchers are watching TV because of their sleeplessness then it would be unfair to say that watching tv causes sleeplessness.( Although, the wording is quite confusing)

B asks for a lot of assumption. What if reading books were an exciting activity. Maybe when I read books, I dont feel like sleeping at all. In that case, B may even be strengthening the argument by saying that even the excitation brought about by reading the book is not able to counter the soothing effect of listening to classical music.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 00:23
MacFauz wrote:
None of the answer choices seem very conducive to me. However, I would choose C with great disdain :p . If the tv watchers are watching TV because of their sleeplessness then it would be unfair to say that watching tv causes sleeplessness.( Although, the wording is quite confusing)

B asks for a lot of assumption. What if reading books were an exciting activity. Maybe when I read books, I dont feel like sleeping at all. In that case, B may even be strengthening the argument by saying that even the excitation brought about by reading the book is not able to counter the soothing effect of listening to classical music.

Actually seeing, C strengthens the argument! While B weakens it.
Listening to music --> Restful sleep
B disproves this.
In C,
It gives further evidence that Watching TV before sleep, causes restless sleep.
So it has to be B.
Whats the OA?
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 01:53
vmdce129907 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss

+1 for B

Conclusion: listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect
Reading --> a new possibility for a restful sleep. Listening to classical music is not the only way to have a restful sleep.

I think D is wrong because it says "often interferes" which is neither +ve or -ve. Plus its mentions "bedtime activity" which is a generalization
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 02:26
kennyd wrote:
MacFauz wrote:
None of the answer choices seem very conducive to me. However, I would choose C with great disdain :p . If the tv watchers are watching TV because of their sleeplessness then it would be unfair to say that watching tv causes sleeplessness.( Although, the wording is quite confusing)

B asks for a lot of assumption. What if reading books were an exciting activity. Maybe when I read books, I dont feel like sleeping at all. In that case, B may even be strengthening the argument by saying that even the excitation brought about by reading the book is not able to counter the soothing effect of listening to classical music.

Actually seeing, C strengthens the argument! While B weakens it.
Listening to music --> Restful sleep
B disproves this.
In C,
It gives further evidence that Watching TV before sleep, causes restless sleep.
So it has to be B.
Whats the OA?

But where does it say that reading a book helps sleeping??.

BTW the OA IS B which I'm not very convinced with. Maybe A & B together would contribute to weakening the conclusion.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 21:07
I completely disagree with B.

The conclusion states: Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Answer choice B says: People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

Listening to classical music and enjoying classical music are completely different things. Just because you enjoy it does not mean that you listen to it before bed and vise versa.

I really don't like any of these answer choices. I question the validity of the problem. What is the source?
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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12 Oct 2012, 22:19
I was going to say C, but C talks about "late-night television," which the passage never refers to. The passage talks about AVID television watchers, who may or may not watch late-night television. One can certainly watch late-night television without being an avid television watcher, and C is saying this person will have sleep problems more than the rest. But the passage avid tv watcher < more sleep problems than classical music enthusiast who doesn't watch TV. Nothing about late-night, other than the fact that classical music enthusiasts don't watch any TV as a habit, including late-night TV. So if anything, C is saying those who watch late-night TV (who may or may not be avid TV watchers, but they're certainly not people who enjoy classical music) have more sleeping problems than people who don't watch late-night TV (which classical music fans are part of). C actually strengthens the argument.

Just by elimination I would say B. The passage actually first talks about people who *like* to listen to classical music (who don't watch TV by habit) take less sleeping pills. But the conclusion points to people who LISTEN to classical music just before bedtime. B says people who *ENJOY* classical music actually like to READ before bedtime, not listen to classical music. These are the same people the passage is talking about, the same people who take less sleeping pills than avid TV watchers. Therefore, their better sleep is not because of the fact that they listen to classical music before bedtime--they actually don't! So B weakens the argument.

(Although just before bedtime you could read AND listen to classical music at the same time, so it's a bit iffy...)
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12 Oct 2012, 22:21
CMcAboy wrote:
I completely disagree with B.

The conclusion states: Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Answer choice B says: People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

Listening to classical music and enjoying classical music are completely different things. Just because you enjoy it does not mean that you listen to it before bed and vise versa.

I really don't like any of these answer choices. I question the validity of the problem. What is the source?

Listen =/ (not the same as) enjoy.
And people who read a book just before bedtime are therefore not listening to classical music before bedtime. So their better sleep has nothing to do with listening to classical music just before bedtime.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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13 Oct 2012, 02:24
vmdce129907 wrote:
An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.

I am not very convinced with the OA for this question. Please discuss

Hi -> The argument has a causality in the conclusion i.e when
Music causes sleep
TV causes No sleep

Whenever we have causality be vary because they are weakly supported as its done here; We can weaken by saying B causes A or something else caused B....

Let's look into only B and C
C-> Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
This we already know from the argument don't we? this doesn't go one way or another i.e which caused which..... No good!

B -> People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
This gives alternate cause i.e its NOT MUSIC causes sleep BUT reading causes sleep, hence our answer

this is a DAMN GOOD CR!
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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14 Oct 2012, 03:19
I too agree with B as correct answer
It weakens the argument.
Conclusion eople listening to classical music have good sleep
weaken statement should another reason to good sleep at night, it should make us beleive that there something else along with classical music that helps in good sleep.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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15 Jan 2014, 10:27
MacFauz wrote:
None of the answer choices seem very conducive to me. However, I would choose C with great disdain :p . If the tv watchers are watching TV because of their sleeplessness then it would be unfair to say that watching tv causes sleeplessness.( Although, the wording is quite confusing)

B asks for a lot of assumption. What if reading books were an exciting activity. Maybe when I read books, I dont feel like sleeping at all. In that case, B may even be strengthening the argument by saying that even the excitation brought about by reading the book is not able to counter the soothing effect of listening to classical music.

I thought the same way as MacFauz, there's a lot of assumptions that have to go for answer B to be the correct choice. I found C more logically sound even though it still has a few gaps

What do y'all think?

Cheers!
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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17 Jan 2014, 15:20
For me it is C.

The argument says: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect

1) If you watch TV then you will have problem to sleep

2) If you listen to classical music then you will have no problem

therefore, the CAUSE of you problem is the fact that you watch TV => Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect

In order to find a weakener, you need to found another reason of this sleeping problems.

Wordy question by the way.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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18 Jan 2014, 04:53
I will go with B. my two cents below:

Premise: Those listening to classical music do not have to take sleeping pills for a restful sleep. And Avid TV watchers must take sleeping pills due to their TV watching habit.
Conclusion: Listening to classical music before bedtime contributes to restful sleep.

Note that there is a jump to conclusion from just listening to classical music to listening to classical music before bedtime.

And the assumption here is classical music causes better sleep..

This is a weaken question. If we have an alternate cause for better sleep other than classical music then the conclusion does not hold true. The alternate cause is introduced in B. A is similar but it does not clarify if the people listening to classical music were reading books before sleeping or not. Also no other option relates the act of listening to music before bedtime except B.
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Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to [#permalink]

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05 Mar 2014, 08:13
Is the OA B?
It is weakening the argument by exploiting the gap in the conclusion ie people who listen to classical music are more likely to sleep soundly.What if people who like to listen to classical music DO SOMETHING ELSE(READING) before going to bed?Then we can't say it's because of classical music that they have a sound sleep.
Re: An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to   [#permalink] 05 Mar 2014, 08:13

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