An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleepin

Here is the OA along with OE that I got after searching

The best answer choice is the second one (we'll call it B). The argument concludes that there is a cause-and-effect relationship between listening to classical music and getting restful sleep. But this conclusion is based merely on the statistical correlation cited in the first sentence. One way to discredit the conclusion is to provide evidence that something else results in restful sleep. That’s exactly what choice (B) accomplishes, by pointing out another possible cause: bedtime reading.

The statement in the first answer choice (we'll call it A) accomplishes little, if anything, toward weakening the argument, which compares listening to music — specifically, classical music — to watching television, not to reading.

The statement in the third answer choice (we'll call it C) actually strengthens the argument by providing additional evidence that watching television before bedtime results in restless sleep.

The statement in the fourth answer choice (we'll call it D) would weaken the argument only if listening to classical music is more mentally stimulating than watching television. However, the argument provides no evidence to substantiate this crucial assumption.

The statement in the fifth answer choice (we'll call it E) is irrelevant to the argument, which seeks to compare a person’s environment just before bedtime, not during sleep.

Really good question. I too fell for C but then realized I made a basic mistake in cause-effect relation. I too agree it is B.

An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit. Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the above argument?

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
Irrelevant as comparison is not between reading a book and listening to music.
(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
This cast a doubt that reading before bedtime rather than classical music contributes towards restful sleep.
(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
This supports the argument rather than weakening it.
(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
This is out of scope. Mentally stimulating activity is not discussed here.
(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sounds.
This is also out of scope.

"Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night???s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect."

Why is B the correct option. Aren't we only talking about Music and TV.
The author concludes that music, just before bedtime, contributes to a 'more' restful sleep. Nowhere has s/he mentioned that Music is the best remedy for a good night's sleep. no?

Hi Kaustav

Let us analyze the stimulus as given:

Conclusion: Clearly, listening to classical music just before bedtime contributes to a more restful night’s sleep, whereas watching television before bedtime has the opposite effect.
Premise (Why): An avid television viewer is statistically more likely to take sleeping pills at bedtime than a person who enjoys listening to classical music but does not watch television as a habit.

Please note that there is a subtle language shift in the stimulus. The premise only talks about watching TV and listening to classical music as habits, whereas the conclusion talks about doing these activities just before bedtime. We do not know if those who have these habits do these activities just before bedtime.

Now, in an X --> Y scenario, there can be a few possibilities:

a) It is not X that causes Y, but an alternate explanation Z which causes Y.
b) Reverse causality ie; it is not X -- Y but Y --> X.
c) Correlation ie; a third variable Z causes both X and Y.

Since this is a weaken the argument question, we are looking for one of the above possibilities.

Option (B) states: People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.

Now this clearly provides a third variable (read books before bedtime) which is correlated with both X (classical music) and potentially Y (restful sleep) because this removes the language shift in the premise ie; the reading of books is done just before bedtime. Therefore, this option could very well weaken the conclusion made in the stimulus. Among the given answer options, this is the only one with this possibility and hence is the correct answer.

Hope this helps.

(A) Reading a book before bedtime contributes to restful sleep more than listening to music does.
This doesn't help us determine the contribution since the differece is relative

(B) People who enjoy classical music typically like to read just before bedtime.
This weakens as reading is contributing to the sleepiness and not music itself

(C) Sleeplessness is more common among people who watch late-night television than among people who do not.
It doesn't have any impact just restating the premise of the argument

(D) Engaging in a bedtime activity that is mentally stimulating often interferes with a person’s ability to fall asleep.
Yes this strengthens the argument

(E) A silent environment is less conducive to restful sleep than an environment with calming ambient sound
However this does't help us determine as of why Movie watching hinders

hence IMO B hope it helps

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