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Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classic.

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Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classic. [#permalink] New post 29 Dec 2004, 20:41
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Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classic. Since few literate persons have read the classics, it is clear that most literate persons are lazy

Which of the following is an assumption on which the argument above is based?

A) only literate person can understand the classics
B) any literate person should read the classics
C) any literate person who is lazy has no chance of reading the classics
D) any literate person who will not read the classics is lazy
E) any literate person who can read the classics will choose to do so

anyone got a good read on this and a way to deal with this particular question?
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 [#permalink] New post 29 Dec 2004, 21:42
I will go with 'D'
Since the conclusion of the argument is that 'most literate persons are lazy' becos not many of them have not read the classics, the author assumes 'D'
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 [#permalink] New post 29 Dec 2004, 22:35
I beg to differ from rthothad,
I vote for C

D is implied from the statement. C correctly states the assumption. What is the OA?
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Dec 2004, 07:28
one more for D. what is the OA?
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Dec 2004, 08:50
OA is E. I have been thinking about this.
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 [#permalink] New post 30 Dec 2004, 12:24
why is this E? :?: I still can't get it after reading over and over
  [#permalink] 30 Dec 2004, 12:24
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Any literate person who is not lazy can read the classic.

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