As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in th

Its A.
I think "since then" goes well with a present perfect tense because since indicates that the process is will continuing.
Additionally, B and C out being "being"
In D, the construction of the clause, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, is awkward.
In E, there is present continuous with slipping and 'were' which is past tense.

A. another error free.

present perfect: have need with since.

Would (C) be right if it is rephrased as

C) and slipped since then, as many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

the other choices remaining the same?
(A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(B) and have slipped since then, the reason being because many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(D) but, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, they have slipped since then
(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in the fourth quarter of 1988 [url]and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs[/url]
A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(B) and have slipped since then, the reason being because many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(C) and slipped since then, many companies being unable to pass on higher costs
(D) but, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, they have slipped since then
(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

I saw this question in many forums, everybody is saying that option A is the answer . The phrases "peaked" and " have sllipped" are not in parallel farm,then it coouldn't be the answer. Among the options the sentences with the usage of "being" is better than the sentences with wrong parallel construction. so , the answer could be option C. please correct me if my reasoning is wrong.

The sentence is dealing with time. "profits peaked" past and "have slipped" present as the sentence is saying "have slipped" with an implied continue to slip.

None of the options make any sense other than A. Besides, 'peaked' indicates that the action is over and 'have slipped' indicates that the action is ongoing, as indicated by the above poster.

On a side-note, please underline your questions. It will help others in viewing the questions and consequently you will get more replies.

never, ever and since always go with perfect

profit peaked [a past action] .. and have slipped since then [present-perfect; something that started in the past and continues into the present] .. as companies have been unable to pass [present perfect]

here we need to make sure that the above construction is not distorted as presented in the original sentence

since all of other choices distort this contruction and use tenses incorrectly, A is the correct answer

A it is

the usage of have slipped coveys the meaning that the profits have been slipping since then.
but in the option a, the additive usage of have slipped since then is making the phrase redundant...
i dnt feel any of the option is correct..
plz correct me if i am wrong

There is nothing wrong in using the phrase "since then".

Think like this: it is also possible that, they peaked in 4th quarter, were stable for some time and then slipped. But author wanted to rule this out possibility (i.e., author wanted to convey -they peaked and then immediately slipped). For this reason, it looks more appropriate to use the phrase.

+1 A
correct II-ism
with since, have is reqd( present perfect tense).

You have to use the present perfect (have, has) because the event is still continuing ....hence A) is correct

Hello guys, why is E wrong? Is it because of usage of "yet".
or is it because of verb tense:
as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs vs as many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

Or is it both?

When to use "yet"?

I would say both.

(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

The first verb refer to an action that started in the past but continues in the present => past continuos
"are slipping" expresses an action that is happening "continuously" in the present (for a long period of time).
Also "were" is not correct.

You can refer here for the usage of yet

daagh,

Could you explain why option C is wrong?

I was stuck between A and C and i chose C. C is concise than A and C has same meaning as A has.

As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in the fourth quarter of 1988

(A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(C) and slipped since then, many companies being unable to pass on higher costs

B and C can be ruled out because of the unnecessary use of ‘being’.
D is awkward in “but many…they have”
E is not parallel because of ‘slipping’ and ‘were unable’.
A is the best choice.

I have the same question as above GMATNinja

Also, one more question: the correct answer "A" is having As X,As Y construction. As X, As Y according to me is used for equal comparison which does not fit according to me.