As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
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# As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits

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As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits [#permalink]

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17 May 2010, 14:51
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90% (01:55) correct 10% (01:52) wrong based on 66 sessions

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As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in the fourth quarter of 1988 [url]and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs[/url]
A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(B) and have slipped since then, the reason being because many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(C) and slipped since then, many companies being unable to pass on higher costs
(D) but, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, they have slipped since then
(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

I saw this question in many forums, everybody is saying that option A is the answer . The phrases "peaked" and " have sllipped" are not in parallel farm,then it coouldn't be the answer. Among the options the sentences with the usage of "being" is better than the sentences with wrong parallel construction. so , the answer could be option C. please correct me if my reasoning is wrong.

Last edited by TomB on 17 May 2010, 21:00, edited 2 times in total.
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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17 May 2010, 16:41
TomB wrote:
As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in the fourth quarter of 1988 [/u]and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs

A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(B) and have slipped since then, the reason being because many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(C) and slipped since then, many companies being unable to pass on higher costs
(D) but, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, they have slipped since then
(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

I saw this question in many forums, everybody is saying that option A is the answer . The phrases "peaked" and " have sllipped" are not in parallel farm,then it coouldn't be the answer. Among the options the sentences with the usage of "being" is better than the sentences with wrong parallel construction. so , the answer could be option C. please correct me if my reasoning is wrong.

The sentence is dealing with time. "profits peaked" past and "have slipped" present as the sentence is saying "have slipped" with an implied continue to slip.
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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17 May 2010, 21:13
TomB wrote:
As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits peaked in the fourth quarter of 1988 [url]and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs[/url]
A) and have slipped since then, as many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(B) and have slipped since then, the reason being because many companies have been unable to pass on higher costs
(C) and slipped since then, many companies being unable to pass on higher costs
(D) but, many companies unable to pass on higher costs, they have slipped since then
(E) yet are slipping since then, because many companies were unable to pass on higher costs

I saw this question in many forums, everybody is saying that option A is the answer . The phrases "peaked" and " have sllipped" are not in parallel farm,then it coouldn't be the answer. Among the options the sentences with the usage of "being" is better than the sentences with wrong parallel construction. so , the answer could be option C. please correct me if my reasoning is wrong.

None of the options make any sense other than A. Besides, 'peaked' indicates that the action is over and 'have slipped' indicates that the action is ongoing, as indicated by the above poster.

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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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18 May 2010, 05:40
(A) for the reasoning mentioned above.
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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18 May 2010, 10:52
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never, ever and since always go with perfect
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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21 May 2010, 11:50
profit peaked [a past action] .. and have slipped since then [present-perfect; something that started in the past and continues into the present] .. as companies have been unable to pass [present perfect]

here we need to make sure that the above construction is not distorted as presented in the original sentence

since all of other choices distort this contruction and use tenses incorrectly, A is the correct answer

A it is

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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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29 Aug 2011, 05:30
the usage of have slipped coveys the meaning that the profits have been slipping since then.
but in the option a, the additive usage of have slipped since then is making the phrase redundant...
i dnt feel any of the option is correct..
plz correct me if i am wrong
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department........ [#permalink]

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31 Dec 2011, 10:24
siddharthasingh wrote:
the usage of have slipped coveys the meaning that the profits have been slipping since then.
but in the option a, the additive usage of have slipped since then is making the phrase redundant...
i dnt feel any of the option is correct..
plz correct me if i am wrong

There is nothing wrong in using the phrase "since then".

Think like this: it is also possible that, they peaked in 4th quarter, were stable for some time and then slipped. But author wanted to rule this out possibility (i.e., author wanted to convey -they peaked and then immediately slipped). For this reason, it looks more appropriate to use the phrase.
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits [#permalink]

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02 Jan 2012, 05:56
+1 A
correct II-ism
with since, have is reqd( present perfect tense).
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits [#permalink]

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04 Jan 2012, 06:11
You have to use the present perfect (have, has) because the event is still continuing ....hence A) is correct
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits [#permalink]

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17 Jan 2014, 19:07
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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits [#permalink]

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10 Aug 2015, 15:16
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Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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Re: As measured by the Commerce Department, corporate profits   [#permalink] 10 Aug 2015, 15:16
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