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# Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices

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Intern
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Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices [#permalink]

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23 Oct 2006, 15:56
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Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.

A. Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B. Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C. Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D. Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E. Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging
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23 Oct 2006, 19:53
Due to X,Y.

has sent prices seems like not proper usage.

So going for D
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23 Oct 2006, 20:00
I don't see anything wrong with A.

I'm not very clear about the usage of "due to" and "because". Anybody care to elaborate? Thanks!
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24 Oct 2006, 20:19
Here is a note I found in some other discussion thread:

Because: Used to give the reason
Due to: Used in situations where it means "attributable to"

Possible structures: â€˜Due to + Noun Phraseâ€™ and â€˜Due to the fact that + Main Clauseâ€™, and â€˜Because + Main Clauseâ€™ and â€˜Because of + Noun Phraseâ€™.

I still feel D is the answer. A looks too sporty. Can such sentences be answers in GMAT?
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24 Oct 2006, 21:57
Allen760 wrote:
Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging, the manufacturer has announced that it will cut production by closing its factories for two days a month.

A. Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices plunging
B. Because of plunging prices for computer chips, which is due to an oversupply
C. Because computer chip prices have been sent plunging, which resulted from an oversupply
D. Due to plunging computer chip prices from an oversupply
E. Due to an oversupply, with the result that computer chip prices have been sent plunging

D for me.

A is awkward. D uses 'Due to X..Y' and is precise.
What is the OA?
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25 Oct 2006, 06:56
A seems more reasonable even though it breaks the "because/due-to" rule
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25 Oct 2006, 15:56
Dont quote me. But I read in Grammar Smart book that Due to can be used as an adjective but not as prepositional phrase

For eg.,
His tardiness was due to traffic CORRECT

Due to traffic, he is tardy. WRONG

The former is used as an adjective and the later as a prepositional phrase.

BUT AGAIN please check other references too as I am not 100% convinced that this can be used universally.

SC gurus may chip in with their cameos of advises.

So I pick A here
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26 Oct 2006, 00:06
"from an over supply" is awkward in D.

(A) stands tall and proud here.

BTW: it is OK to use the present perfect more than one time in the same sentence.
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26 Oct 2006, 00:19
I found this from an online dictionary regarding "due to":

USAGE NOTE Due to has been widely used for many years as a compound preposition like owing to, but some critics have insisted that due should be used only as an adjective. According to this view, it is incorrect to say "The concert was canceled due to the rain," but acceptable to say "The cancellation of the concert was due to the rain," where due continues to function as an adjective modifying cancellation. This seems a fine point, however, and since due to is widely used and understood, there seems little reason to avoid using it as a preposition.

So does that mean D is wrong?
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# Because an oversupply of computer chips has sent prices

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