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can someone tell me what is the meaning of "the chemicals division for the balance" in the following question and how to resolve it? A company’s two divisions performed with remarkable consistency over the past three years: in each of those years, the pharmaceuticals division has accounted for roughly 20 percent of dollar sales and 40 percent of profits, and the chemicals division for the balance.
Which of the following can properly be inferred regarding the past three years from the statement above?
(A) Total dollar sales for each of the company’s divisions have remained roughly constant. (B) The pharmaceuticals division has faced stiffer competition in its markets than has the chemecials division. (C) The chemicals division has realized lower profits per dollar of sales than has the pharmaceuticals division. (D) The product mix offered by each of the company’s divisions has remained unchaged. (E) Highly profitable products accounted for a higher percentage of the chemicals division’s sales than of those of the pharmaceuticals divisions.
pharmaceuticals divisions has 20% in dollar sales and 40% in profits, the chemicals division for the balance means the chemicals division has 80% (100%-20%) in dollar sales and 60% (100%-40%) in profits. Thus, you know C is your answer.
http://blog.davidbbaker.com/wp-content/uploads/2015/11/12249800_10153820891439090_8007573611012789132_n.jpg When you think about an MBA program, usually the last thing you think of is professional collegiate sport. (Yes American’s I’m going...