I approached this like a PS
we have 40% for republicans and 60% for democrats.
Suppose total surveyed people are 100.
If 0.85*40% go and vote for the republican party, then the rep candidate will receive 34 votes.
Same reasoning for the democrat candidate, he will receive 30 votes.
In this case 36% don't vote.
So my answer is E
It has not been specified that Republicans + Democrats = 100%.
Kapslock, it doesn't matter, we know ~40% are likely to favor rep, by giving rest 60% to demo, we r actually creating a best case scenario for demo. If there r other parties then Demos % will go down even further. "E" is correct I believe.
I agree with what you say, but we have some really tight call here.
Republicans : Democrats = 38% : 62%
Voting Repubs : Voting Dems = 38*0.85 : 62* 0.5 = 32.3 : 31
This is just but a trivial point. The important point is, that we don't know how long it is to go for the next elections, and we don't know if this percentage is going to hold till then. (If the republicans % could vary between november and now from 47% to 38%, who knows what it would be, in 2008 end).
Compared to this, isn't the other option fairly comfortable?
In 84, even when republicans were in minority, they won. When they are in majority, they are naturally
more likely to win.
I know you can find holes in this statement, as to why don't Democrats naturally
win despite being in a majority, but honestly, I don't have an answer to this, other than the fact that there has been a precedent for all to see.
Maybe we can try to work backwards using the OA if that can be posted now?
Who says elephants can't dance?