Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

It appears that you are browsing the GMAT Club forum unregistered!

Signing up is free, quick, and confidential.
Join other 500,000 members and get the full benefits of GMAT Club

Registration gives you:

Tests

Take 11 tests and quizzes from GMAT Club and leading GMAT prep companies such as Manhattan GMAT,
Knewton, and others. All are free for GMAT Club members.

Applicant Stats

View detailed applicant stats such as GPA, GMAT score, work experience, location, application
status, and more

Books/Downloads

Download thousands of study notes,
question collections, GMAT Club’s
Grammar and Math books.
All are free!

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

can anyone help me with the explanation to this problem.

The wording makes this question harder than it is actually.

If positive integer p cannot be expressed as the product of two integers >1, it simply means that p is a prime number. So, basically question asks is p prime?

(1) 31<p<37 --> between these numbers there is no prime. Hence ANY integer from these range CAN be expresses as the product of two numbers. Sufficient.

(2) p is odd --> odd numbers can be primes as well as non-primes. Not sufficient.

This question confuses me big time. When I saw "CAN" I expected as sufficient to be able to prove that yes, there was a way to do so. Hence for statement (2) I'd say that yes, IT CAN BE EXPRESSED AS THE PRODUCT OF TWO INTEGERS. Do you consider the following two statements to have the same meaning?

(i) Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

(ii) Is the positive integer p the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

So basically if there are 2 possible answers (yes/no) it will always be insufficient?

It's a YES/NO DS question. In a Yes/No Data Sufficiency question, statement is sufficient if the answer is “always yes” or “always no” while a statement is insufficient if the answer is "sometimes yes" and "sometimes no". _________________

Required: Can p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1 Or is p = x*y, where x and y are greater than 1. This means p can have the numbers that are not prime, since a prime number has only 2 factors: 1 and the number itself.

Statement 1: 31 < p < 37 Values of p can be = 32, 33, 34, 35, 36 None of these is prime, hence p can be written as a product of x and y SUFFICIENT

Statement 2: p is odd. Odd numbers can both be prime and non prime INSUFFICIENT

can anyone help me with the explanation to this problem.

The wording makes this question harder than it is actually.

If positive integer p can not be expressed as the product of two integers >1, it simply means that p is a prime number. So, basically question asks is p prime?

(1) 31<p<37 --> between these numbers there is no prime. Hence ANY integer from these range CAN be expresses as the product of two numbers. Sufficient.

(2) p is odd --> odd numbers can be primes as well as non-primes. Not sufficient.

Answer: A.

If positive integer p can not be expressed as the product of two integers >1, it simply means that p is a prime number. So, basically question asks is p prime? how can u say this..please elaborate...how p is prime...any no greater than one can be any no..why r u sayin p is prime?

If positive integer p can not be expressed as the product of two integers >1, it simply means that p is a prime number. So, basically question asks is p prime? how can u say this..please elaborate...how p is prime...any no greater than one can be any no..why r u sayin p is prime?

Prime number can only be expressed as "1*p", where p is the prime number itself

13=1*13

Can we write any prime number in the form; p=m*n where, p=prime number m=integer greater than 1 n=integer greater than 1 No, right? For prime number, at least one of m and n must be 1.

Thus, question is indirectly asking whether p is a prime number.
_________________

Re: Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of [#permalink]

Show Tags

23 Feb 2012, 21:08

I don't understand this question. I am getting E.

Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

Statement (1) states that 31<p<37

My logic was that p can be anything that fits between 31 and 37, so 36 36 = 9 x 4 and each integer is greater than 1, so it is sufficient 36 = -9 x -4 and each integer is not greater than 1, so insufficient.

Statement (2), I agree it is insufficient.

(1) and (2) is still insufficient because 35 (fits statement 2) and 35 can be 7x5 so each integer is greater than 1. 35 can also be -7x-5 so each integer is not greater than 1.

Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

Statement (1) states that 31<p<37

My logic was that p can be anything that fits between 31 and 37, so 36 36 = 9 x 4 and each integer is greater than 1, so it is sufficient 36 = -9 x -4 and each integer is not greater than 1, so insufficient.

Statement (2), I agree it is insufficient.

(1) and (2) is still insufficient because 35 (fits statement 2) and 35 can be 7x5 so each integer is greater than 1. 35 can also be -7x-5 so each integer is not greater than 1.

Am I misunderstanding the question?

It seems that you misinterpreted the question.

Look at the definition of a prime number: a prime number is a positive integer with exactly two factors: 1 and itself. Now, the questions asks: "can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1" So, the question basically asks whether p is a prime number, because if it is then p can NOT be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1.

(1) states: 31 < p < 37. Between these numbers there is no prime. Hence ANY integer from these range CAN be expresses as the product of two numbers, which means that the answer to the question is YES: p can always be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Sufficient.

Just to illustrate: 32=2*18, 33=3*11, 34=2*17, 35=5*7, 36=2*18.

Can the positive integer P be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1? (1) 31<p<37 (2) p=odd

The answer according my program is A, but I dont understand why it can not be D. Because if we take 3*3=9 which is odd and integer and greater than 1?

Thank you in advance

P is some particular integer and we are asked whether it can be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Now, for (2) if p=9 then the answer is YES, it can be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1 but of p=5 then the answer is NO, it cannot be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Two different answers, hence this statement is not sufficient.

Does it makes sense?

P.S. Please refer for a complete solution to the above posta and ask if anything remains unclear.
_________________

Re: Can the positive integer P be expressed as a product of 2... [#permalink]

Show Tags

28 Feb 2012, 16:51

Bunuel wrote:

Merging similar topics.

vladkarz wrote:

Can the positive integer P be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1? (1) 31<p<37 (2) p=odd

The answer according my program is A, but I dont understand why it can not be D. Because if we take 3*3=9 which is odd and integer and greater than 1?

Thank you in advance

P is some particular integer and we are asked whether it can be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Now, for (2) if p=9 then the answer is YES, it can be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1 but of p=5 then the answer is NO, it cannot be expressed as a product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Two different answers, hence this statement is not sufficient.

Does it makes sense?

P.S. Please refer for a complete solution to the above posta and ask if anything remains unclear.

Thank you very much Bunuel,

So basically if there are 2 possible answers (yes/no) it will always be insufficient?

Re: Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of [#permalink]

Show Tags

08 Apr 2012, 05:51

Bunuel wrote:

chamisool wrote:

I don't understand this question. I am getting E.

Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

Statement (1) states that 31<p<37

My logic was that p can be anything that fits between 31 and 37, so 36 36 = 9 x 4 and each integer is greater than 1, so it is sufficient 36 = -9 x -4 and each integer is not greater than 1, so insufficient.

Statement (2), I agree it is insufficient.

(1) and (2) is still insufficient because 35 (fits statement 2) and 35 can be 7x5 so each integer is greater than 1. 35 can also be -7x-5 so each integer is not greater than 1.

Am I misunderstanding the question?

It seems that you misinterpreted the question.

Look at the definition of a prime number: a prime number is a positive integer with exactly two factors: 1 and itself. Now, the questions asks: "can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1" So, the question basically asks whether p is a prime number, because if it is then p can NOT be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1.

(1) states: 31 < p < 37. Between these numbers there is no prime. Hence ANY integer from these range CAN be expresses as the product of two numbers, which means that the answer to the question is YES: p can always be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1. Sufficient.

Just to illustrate: 32=2*18, 33=3*11, 34=2*17, 35=5*7, 36=2*18.

Hope it's clear.

I think as you said, the key to this problem are the words each of which is greater than one is correct ???

You think the problem can be solved even if you do not see this nuance ??

Re: Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of [#permalink]

Show Tags

13 Apr 2013, 08:13

Ah...I struggled with this one at first as well

I originally got D because I thought the question was asking if we can have product of two numbers for p.

Key for me was reminding myself that this is as "Yes or No" question, which means that it's "always yes" or "always no." For some reason, I had interpreted "Can the positive..." as is there a single instance where it can be true.

1) 31 < p < 37... 32 = 8 x 4 33 = 11 x 3 34 = 2 x 17 35 = 5 x7 36= 6 x 6 sufficient

2) p is odd p = 5 p = 15 not sufficient

So, the answer is A because statement 2 is not ALWAYS sufficient

Re: Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of [#permalink]

Show Tags

12 Sep 2013, 09:53

chamisool wrote:

I don't understand this question. I am getting E.

Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

Statement (1) states that 31<p<37

My logic was that p can be anything that fits between 31 and 37, so 36 36 = 9 x 4 and each integer is greater than 1, so it is sufficient 36 = -9 x -4 and each integer is not greater than 1, so insufficient.

Statement (2), I agree it is insufficient.

(1) and (2) is still insufficient because 35 (fits statement 2) and 35 can be 7x5 so each integer is greater than 1. 35 can also be -7x-5 so each integer is not greater than 1.

Am I misunderstanding the question?

Hi Bunuel, The question asks: can p be expressed as a product of two numbers greater than 1? If I prove that p can be expressed as a product of two numbers which are < 1 and can also be expressed as a product of two numbers > 1 then the statement A) / B) would become insufficient. Right?

Now, as quoted above, for statement A), I can express 36= 1*36, -1*-36,-9*-4..... so doesn't it mean that statement A) is insufficient?

If A) is sufficient to answer the question, is it because of the fact that the question asks "Can it be expressed as product of two numbers > 1" instead of "Is P a product of two numbers which are always greater than 1?"

Can the positive integer p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1?

Statement (1) states that 31<p<37

My logic was that p can be anything that fits between 31 and 37, so 36 36 = 9 x 4 and each integer is greater than 1, so it is sufficient 36 = -9 x -4 and each integer is not greater than 1, so insufficient.

Statement (2), I agree it is insufficient.

(1) and (2) is still insufficient because 35 (fits statement 2) and 35 can be 7x5 so each integer is greater than 1. 35 can also be -7x-5 so each integer is not greater than 1.

Am I misunderstanding the question?

Hi Bunuel, The question asks: can p be expressed as a product of two numbers greater than 1? If I prove that p can be expressed as a product of two numbers which are < 1 and can also be expressed as a product of two numbers > 1 then the statement A) / B) would become insufficient. Right?

Now, as quoted above, for statement A), I can express 36= 1*36, -1*-36,-9*-4..... so doesn't it mean that statement A) is insufficient?

If A) is sufficient to answer the question, is it because of the fact that the question asks "Can it be expressed as product of two numbers > 1" instead of "Is P a product of two numbers which are always greater than 1?"

No, the red part is not correct.

The question asks "can p be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1".

If from a statement you get that EACH possible value of p can be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1, then the answer is YES, and the statement is sufficient.

If from a statement you get that NONE of the possible values of p can be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1, then the answer is NO, and the statement is sufficient too.

If from a statement you get that some possible values of p cannot but other possible values of p can be expressed as the product of two integers, each of which is greater than 1, then we'd have two answers to the question and the statement wouldn't be sufficient.

Hey, guys, So, I’ve decided to run a contest in hopes of getting the word about the site out to as many applicants as possible this application season...

Whether you’re an entrepreneur, aspiring business leader, or you just think that you may want to learn more about business, the thought of getting your Masters in Business Administration...

Whether you’re an entrepreneur, aspiring business leader, or you just think that you may want to learn more about business, the thought of getting your Masters in Business Administration...