China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In : GMAT Critical Reasoning (CR)
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# China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In

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China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 11:16
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3. China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In order to do this, China must raise their gross national product rate by 33%. China's economy is structured so that if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

Of the following statements listed below, which one must be true if we are to assume the above statements are also true?

A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable.
B. China's GNP will not have a 50% increase, if its economy falls.
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%.
D. A 17% GNP increase will be unattainable, if China continues to suffer national conflict.
E. A 71% increase is possible, if the 33% brink is achieved, and the 50% GNP increase is attainable.

[Reveal] Spoiler:
A

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Last edited by Maverick04308 on 09 Oct 2012, 00:29, edited 1 time in total.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 11:35
+1 for B. If economy falls GNP will not have an 50% increase. What is the OA?
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 12:16
China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In order to do this, China must raise their gross national product rate by 33%. China's economy is structured so that if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

Of the following statements listed below, which one must be true if we are to assume the above statements are also true?

A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable. // this is not what the author means
B. China's GNP will not have a 50% increase, if its economy falls. // correct
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%. // this is too strong a statement , we don't know this for sure.
D. A 17% GNP increase will be unattainable, if China continues to suffer national conflict. // out of context
E. A 71% increase is possible, if the 33% brink is achieved, and the 50% GNP increase is attainable. // out of context
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 23:23
China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In order to do this, China must raise their gross national product rate by 33%. China's economy is structured so that if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

Of the following statements listed below, which one must be true if we are to assume the above statements are also true?

A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable. // this is not what the author means
B. China's GNP will not have a 50% increase, if its economy falls. // correct
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%. // this is too strong a statement , we don't know this for sure.
D. A 17% GNP increase will be unattainable, if China continues to suffer national conflict. // out of context
E. A 71% increase is possible, if the 33% brink is achieved, and the 50% GNP increase is attainable. // out of context

Maverick - What's the answer? I think it should be C

vdadwal - why would C is stronger than B? both use the same tone / language right?

B. China's GNP will not have a 50% increase, if its economy falls. // correct
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%. // this is too strong a statement , we don't know this for sure.

here is why I think it's gotta be C

Statments Says 33% is necessary for for China to avoid financial collapse and 50% is sufficient for China to avoid financial collapse
so C says China can get to 50% increase then I wil def avoid the collapse!

Option B -> Even if china doesn't increase by 50% but had it increased to 33% its economy will sustain!

what say?
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 23:47
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A seems right to me.
If China's economy does not want to fall, they will have to reach 33% in which case 50% is attainable.
If 50% is unattainable, it means 33% was not reached and hence the economy would fail.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 23:54
MacFauz wrote:
A seems right to me.
If China's economy does not want to fall, they will have to reach 33% in which case 50% is attainable.
If 50% is unattainable, it means 33% was not reached and hence the economy would fail.

there is situation in the stem that allows them to get 33% also right with out reaching 50% (Question reads - if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.)? then why would they fail?
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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08 Oct 2012, 23:57
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If the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

As the reverse rule, if the 50% GNP cannot be reached, then the 33% increase in GNP is not reached. Then, the choice C cannot be correct.

The most correct and appropriate answer is choice B.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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09 Oct 2012, 00:08
tuanquang269 wrote:
If the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

As the reverse rule, if the 50% GNP cannot be reached, then the 33% increase in GNP is not reached. Then, the choice C cannot be correct.

The most correct and appropriate answer is choice B.

Hi please correct me If I'm wrong, the conclusion says "if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.)"

The word possible makes the "if then" relationship not absolute for us to apply If x then Y -> Y not -> X NOT logic ?
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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09 Oct 2012, 00:32
MacFauz wrote:
A seems right to me.
If China's economy does not want to fall, they will have to reach 33% in which case 50% is attainable.
If 50% is unattainable, it means 33% was not reached and hence the economy would fail.

Nice explaination MacFauz.
Thanks!!
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse..... [#permalink]

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09 Oct 2012, 01:27
Jp27 wrote:
MacFauz wrote:
A seems right to me.
If China's economy does not want to fall, they will have to reach 33% in which case 50% is attainable.
If 50% is unattainable, it means 33% was not reached and hence the economy would fail.

there is situation in the stem that allows them to get 33% also right with out reaching 50% (Question reads - if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.)? then why would they fail?

Yes. But it says that if 33% is reached, then 50% would be possible or in other words attainable. We are not saying that without reaching 50% the economy would fall rather we are saying that if there is not a possibility to reach 50% then the economy would fall.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In [#permalink]

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23 Dec 2012, 20:23
Hi

Can anyone shed some light on this question as OA is not posted............the intent of the member who posted seems to be A as the answer.

But i cannot understand why it is A and C both seems to be same and justified byt the argument.

Its straight cause and effect.
Cause:- Help GNP to reach 33% , it will reach to 50% automatically
Effect:- Financial collapse can be avoided.

Question is a mUst be true type.
Clear that A and C are contender.

A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable.
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%.
Really difficult to eliminate both ...I do not think that we can present a thought that there may be other contributors to fall of the economy and hence reject C.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In [#permalink]

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24 Dec 2012, 00:38
In the passage it is said, reaching 33% is must to avoid the fall. But it is nowhere mentioned, it is the only condition. So it mandatory but not sufficient. So reverse may not be true.

No Fall "Requires" Reaching 33 %
But Reaching 33% "does not imply" no fall.

Archit143 wrote:
Hi

Can anyone shed some light on this question as OA is not posted............the intent of the member who posted seems to be A as the answer.

But i cannot understand why it is A and C both seems to be same and justified byt the argument.

Its straight cause and effect.
Cause:- Help GNP to reach 33% , it will reach to 50% automatically
Effect:- Financial collapse can be avoided.

Question is a mUst be true type.
Clear that A and C are contender.

A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable.
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%.
Really difficult to eliminate both ...I do not think that we can present a thought that there may be other contributors to fall of the economy and hence reject C.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In [#permalink]

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24 Jan 2013, 23:51
The question tests the difference between necessary and sufficient condition. Macfauz is absolutely correct in his explanation.
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Re: China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In [#permalink]

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19 Feb 2013, 10:23
Maverick04308 wrote:
3. China wants to avoid financial collapse of their economy. In order to do this, China must raise their gross national product rate by 33%. China's economy is structured so that if the 33% increase in GNP is reached, than it is possible for a 50% GNP increase.

Of the following statements listed below, which one must be true if we are to assume the above statements are also true?
A. China's economy will fall, if China's 50% increase in GNP is unattainable.
B. China's GNP will not have a 50% increase, if its economy falls.
C. The economy of China will not fall, if it can obtain an increased GNP of 50%.
D. A 17% GNP increase will be unattainable, if China continues to suffer national conflict.
E. A 71% increase is possible, if the 33% brink is achieved, and the 50% GNP increase is attainable.

I was asked for help via a private message.

This question is truly abysmal. Imagine a donkey on rollerskates trying to play a Chopin Etude --- that is the level of colossal failure which this question achieves.
Flaw #1: poor, unclear wording --- e.g. are we discussing the GNP or the GNP rate? The percentage changes are over what period?
Flaw #2: the GMAT almost never mentioned numerical information in the CR --- here, at least, it would seem no calculations are needed. Calculations are never needed on the GMAT CR, and are always characteristic of poor quality questions.
Flaw #3: Unrealistic content. In real life, China has the most robust economy in the world. There is absolutely no realistic question of a financial collapse in China. When the GMAT CR mentions anything real-world oriented, everything they say and imply is deeply consistent with the facts of the real-world situation.
Here's a MGMAT post in which they discuss more flaws of this question:
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/inf ... 16786.html

My respect to MacFauz who, despite the exceedingly poor quality of the question, had something intelligent to say, as he typically does.

Overall, I would say: notice that some of the longest threads and most convoluted arguments are about questions so poor in quality that they are really not worth a second look. Find high quality questions, and all these extraneous confusions disappear.

That's my 2¢.

Mike
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