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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that

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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that [#permalink] New post 10 Jul 2004, 18:40
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A
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C
D
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Question Stats:

71% (01:59) correct 29% (01:24) wrong based on 858 sessions
Please attempt with reasoning :snipersmile:

Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.

(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.

(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.

(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.

(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA

Last edited by doe007 on 17 Apr 2013, 20:38, edited 2 times in total.
OA Added
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Re: CR-Trade Retaliation...(Excellent Question) [#permalink] New post 10 Jul 2004, 19:58
I will try. my answer D.
Commentator's point is forwaded by the last statement, first if simply the theory. If a country follow the theory, it won't be able to trade (last sentence, considering one given conuntry), which means some of its markets will always be closed to other countries. Choice "A" is like a premise to "D".

B, C and E are simply out of scope.
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 [#permalink] New post 10 Jul 2004, 20:09
I choose A.
The conclusion here "If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other" simply rejects "the theory of trade retaliation". So the author must assume A. Rewrite:

The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. But in reality,no country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation. If they does, no country would trade with any other.
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Re: CR-Trade Retaliation...(Excellent Question) [#permalink] New post 10 Jul 2004, 21:00
Bhai wrote:
Please attempt with reasoning :snipersmile:

16. Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.


The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?
(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.

(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.

(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.

(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.

(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.


ans:

Really tricky one. 3 mins to understand.

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.

author never stated about countries following the thoery of trade retaliation.

(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.

author mentioned about the theory and consequencies if one follows it. but not this.

(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.

this choice is out of scope

(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.

only left out of choice. chosen by POE.

(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.

this choice is out of scope

so my choice D.
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 [#permalink] New post 10 Jul 2004, 22:11
D it is. 1.5 min
Let's negate it. If all countries have all of their markets open to each other, then there would not even be a reason for the very existence of the theory of retaliation
A is an unwarranted assumption. Some countries may and others may not be practicing it.
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 [#permalink] New post 11 Jul 2004, 00:16
45 s
D it is.

According to the argument, no two countries will trade with each other if the theory of trade retaliation is adopted. This implies that the author is assuming that atleast some of the market of ANY one country is closed to the ANY other country.

If atleast a part of the market of any country X is open to any other country Y, then trade would be possible between the two!
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 [#permalink] New post 11 Jul 2004, 01:12
D.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.

so, one market is closed the other country is suppossed to close its market.Applying this to all, trade does not happen.

Took two mins.
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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that [#permalink] New post 04 Apr 2005, 22:54
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states
that countries closed out of any of another
country’s markets should close some of their
own markets to the other country in order to
pressure the other country to reopen its mar-
kets. If every country acted according to this
theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the
following assumptions?
(A) No country actually acts according to the theory
of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to
foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international
tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some
market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to
protect domestic producers.
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 [#permalink] New post 04 Apr 2005, 23:36
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Commentator:
1) Theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets.

2) If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other. <-- conclusion

We're asked to find an assumption which will make this conclusion true - that is, why following the theory of trade retaliation will result in no countries trading with each other

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.
- Does this help us hold up the conclusion? No.

(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.
- Not useful

(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.
- Out of scope

(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.
- If for any 2 countries, at least one has some market closed to the other, then it's true that all countries are not trading with each other if they closed their markets.

(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.
- Not useful

D it is.
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 [#permalink] New post 05 Apr 2005, 10:19
I found A too strong, but still interesting...
probably D is the answer
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 [#permalink] New post 05 Apr 2005, 22:00
D it is - but I found A inviting !
Nice explanation ywilfred !
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Apr 2005, 04:59
Hmmm. All the answer choices seem weird to me
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Re: FG - cr - trade retaliation [#permalink] New post 07 Apr 2005, 14:52
forrestgump wrote:
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states
that countries closed out of any of another
country’s markets should close some of their
own markets to the other country in order to
pressure the other country to reopen its mar-
kets. If every country acted according to this
theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the
following assumptions?
(A) No country actually acts according to the theory
of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to
foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international
tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some
market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to
protect domestic producers.



i guess it is B,,,,,,,BECAUSE IF ANY COUNTRY BLOCKS ANY OF ITS MARKET TO THE FORGEIN TRADE,,,AND ULTIMATELY THR WILL BE NO TRADE,,,WHIC IS NOT THE CASE.........
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Re: FG - cr - trade retaliation [#permalink] New post 07 Apr 2005, 18:52
forrestgump wrote:
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states
that countries closed out of any of another
country’s markets should close some of their
own markets to the other country in order to
pressure the other country to reopen its mar-
kets. If every country acted according to this
theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the
following assumptions?
(A) No country actually acts according to the theory
of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to
foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international
tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some
market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to
protect domestic producers.


Go for D.

countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.

we need assume at leat one has some market closed to the othe. Or the result will never get.
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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that [#permalink] New post 05 Oct 2005, 16:05
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.
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 [#permalink] New post 05 Oct 2005, 16:40
I'd go for D, but it seems to straight forward o_0

A and B are out, because if either of em were true, then the conclusion could not be valid. Therefore, it cannot be an assumption for the conclusion to be true.

C could be false (not an assumption) and the argument could still hold.

E the reasons for closing markets are out of the scope. the stem never mentions the "protecion of domestic markets" or anything equivalet.
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 [#permalink] New post 05 Oct 2005, 18:07
D is the best choice. If for any two cuntries, at least one has some market closed to the other, then all the countries in the world that practice trade retaliation would not have any trade with that country they are closing their economy to. The conclusion that no country would trade with any other therefore holds.
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Re: CR - Trade retaliation [#permalink] New post 06 Oct 2005, 06:57
Going with D

Conclusion: No country would trade with each other.

Based on the passage, D has to be assumed, otherwise the conculusion is not true. If we assume that atleast 1 country does this, then the conclusion is true.

rahulraao wrote:
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.

The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?

(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.
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 [#permalink] New post 06 Oct 2005, 07:47
cant decide between A and D, the tone of the statement is not very clear...
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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that [#permalink] New post 14 Jun 2007, 08:22
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that countries closed out of any of another country’s markets should close some of their own markets to the other country in order to pressure the other country to reopen its markets. If every country acted according to this theory, no country would trade with any other.
The commentator’s argument relies on which of the following assumptions?
(A) No country actually acts according to the theory of trade retaliation.
(B) No country should block any of its markets to foreign trade.
(C) Trade disputes should be settled by international tribunal.
(D) For any two countries, at least one has some market closed to the other.
(E) Countries close their markets to foreigners to protect domestic producers.
Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that   [#permalink] 14 Jun 2007, 08:22
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Commentator: The theory of trade retaliation states that forrestgump 0 16 Apr 2013, 11:05
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