So the answer to a sentence correction prob in my GMAT 800
"none of my friends has"
it states that none is singular so it needs a singular verb (has).
in my Gmat for Dummies book it reads that the words "some, any, most, all, none" can be singular or plural and will take the number of the object in the prepositional phrase ...
thus it states that the answer should be
"none of my friends have" (since friends is plural)
SO WHICH IS RIGHT????
This is a long argued rule. I don't think ETS tests controversial choices like this. In any case, FWIW, my rule of thumb is to use none as both singular and plural. If I can think: "none of them" I use plural, and if I can think "none of it" I use singular.
None of my friends are going to her party.
None of that last perfomance was worth watching.
Former Senior Instructor, Manhattan GMAT and VeritasPrep
Vice President, Midtown NYC Investment Bank, Structured Finance IT
MFE, Haas School of Business, UC Berkeley, Class of 2005
MBA, Anderson School of Management, UCLA, Class of 1993