Last visit was: 24 Apr 2024, 21:08 It is currently 24 Apr 2024, 21:08

Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
SORT BY:
Date
Tags:
Show Tags
Hide Tags
User avatar
Retired Moderator
Joined: 20 Dec 2010
Posts: 1114
Own Kudos [?]: 4702 [3]
Given Kudos: 376
Send PM
User avatar
Manager
Manager
Joined: 14 Feb 2011
Posts: 103
Own Kudos [?]: 400 [1]
Given Kudos: 3
Send PM
Retired Moderator
Joined: 16 Nov 2010
Posts: 909
Own Kudos [?]: 1173 [0]
Given Kudos: 43
Location: United States (IN)
Concentration: Strategy, Technology
Send PM
GMAT Tutor
Joined: 24 Jun 2008
Posts: 4128
Own Kudos [?]: 9242 [1]
Given Kudos: 91
 Q51  V47
Send PM
Re: x, y and z are consecutive positive integers such that x < y < z [#permalink]
1
Kudos
Expert Reply
fluke wrote:
x, y and z are consecutive positive integers such that x < y < z; which of the following must be true?
1. xyz is divisible by 6
2. (z-x)(y-x+1) = 4
3. xy is odd



It can sometimes be useful to know that the product of n consecutive integers is always divisible by n!. For example, if you have 3 consecutive integers, their product will always be divisible by 3! = 6. This is true because multiples of 3 are three apart, so among any three consecutive integers, you will always find you have exactly one multiple of 3. You'll also always have at least one multiple of 2, so the product of three consecutive integers must be divisible by 3*2. You can use the same logic to prove that the product of 4 consecutive integers is divisible by 4! = 24 (among any four consecutive numbers, you always have exactly one multiple of 4, at least one multiple of 3, and another number which is a multiple of 2), and so on.

If you know this, you can see instantly that (1) is true. Further, xy is the product of 2 consecutive integers so must be divisible by 2! = 2, and there is no way that (3) is true. As others did above, you can establish that (2) is true by substitution.
User avatar
Non-Human User
Joined: 09 Sep 2013
Posts: 32658
Own Kudos [?]: 821 [0]
Given Kudos: 0
Send PM
Re: x, y and z are consecutive positive integers such that x < y < z [#permalink]
Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
GMAT Club Bot
Re: x, y and z are consecutive positive integers such that x < y < z [#permalink]
Moderators:
Math Expert
92900 posts
Senior Moderator - Masters Forum
3137 posts

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group | Emoji artwork provided by EmojiOne