Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950s and early : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
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# Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950s and early

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Manager
Joined: 03 Dec 2006
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Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950s and early [#permalink]

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09 Feb 2007, 23:14
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962. Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950â€™s and early 1960â€™s that predicted the processes of modernization and rationalization would gradually undermine it, ethnicity is a worldwide phenomenon of increasing importance.
(B) to be a gradual undermining of it
(C) would be a gradual undermining of ethnicity

The OA is A. However, it seems to me that the "it" in A can refer to "scholarly wisdom" or "ethnicity".

Can someone please explain why A is correct.
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Joined: 08 Nov 2006
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10 Feb 2007, 21:39
khaos wrote:
962. Contrary to the scholarly wisdom of the 1950â€™s and early 1960â€™s that predicted the processes of modernization and rationalization would gradually undermine it, ethnicity is a worldwide phenomenon of increasing importance.
(B) to be a gradual undermining of it
(C) would be a gradual undermining of ethnicity

The OA is A. However, it seems to me that the "it" in A can refer to "scholarly wisdom" or "ethnicity".

Can someone please explain why A is correct.

Consider this - scholarly wisdom predicted that X will be undermined.

Its unlikely that X would refer to scholarly wisdom, meaning a statement of the nature 'scholary wisdom predicted that .... will undermine scholarly wisdom' makes little sense.

It must be something else other than scholarly wisdom, which leaves us with the noun 'ethnicity'.

Hope this helps.
Manager
Joined: 03 Dec 2006
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Location: London
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11 Feb 2007, 04:27

However, I've always uderstood that it doesn't matter whether it makes sense or not. A pronoun should clearly refer to its antecedent, and it fails to do so in the sentence above

Am I missing something?
11 Feb 2007, 04:27
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