Guys in this question
from (I) we have the probablity of white or a even number are indepedent events right ? which means
P(White)*P(Even) = 0
Am I thinking right?
No. you are wrong in my opinion. What 1) says is that P(White and Even) is 0. That doesnt meen that events are independent.
P(White)*P(Even) = 0 <=> events are independent.
What do others thinks?