Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC) - Page 2
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Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us

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SVP
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18 Mar 2006, 20:37
I just learnt from my friends that these questions are from Barrons.
So, now it's individual decision, how seriously one wants to take it.
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19 Mar 2006, 03:32
vivek123 wrote:
I just learnt from my friends that these questions are from Barrons.
So, now it's individual decision, how seriously one wants to take it.

Barrons is shit.
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19 Mar 2006, 04:00
M8 wrote:

Barrons is *deleted*.

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19 Mar 2006, 06:20
I'm not at home, so I cannot confirm 100% it is barron, but actually it should be so, sorry!

Nevertheless, few of you now cofirm Q1. B. I still don't understand why, since you can use after "without" a noun.

e.g: I went out wihout him.
I went on hollydays without my dog.

Is that right? So why "without his help" shouldnt be correct?
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19 Mar 2006, 06:41
Karlfurt,
I too still could not figure out complete explanation for question 1.

Question 1 - "Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us
we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months"
I agree that "him" is wrong. But, I feel that "his" is also wrong.
Either "without he helping us" or "without his helping (no us)" seem right.
"helping" is a verb here and not gerund because of predicate "us" and how can a possessive noun perform any action??? Comments pleaaaasee.....
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19 Mar 2006, 12:26
chuckle wrote:
Karlfurt,
I too still could not figure out complete explanation for question 1.

Question 1 - "Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us
we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months"
I agree that "him" is wrong. But, I feel that "his" is also wrong.
Either "without he helping us" or "without his helping (no us)" seem right.
"helping" is a verb here and not gerund because of predicate "us" and how can a possessive noun perform any action??? Comments pleaaaasee.....

"helping" is a gerund -so a noun- here. and it is correct to use it after "his"
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19 Mar 2006, 12:38
Selene : "helping" is a gerund -so a noun- here. and it is correct to use it after "his"

Why not....but why not just using "his help". If the gerund is use like a noun, isnt it better to directly use the noun "help". Why make it complicate when it could be simple?
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19 Mar 2006, 14:51
M8 wrote:
vivek123 wrote:
I just learnt from my friends that these questions are from Barrons.
So, now it's individual decision, how seriously one wants to take it.

Barrons is *deleted*.

in light of latest gmat materials (OGS), discussions forums (GMAT club) and you excellent guys' explanation, i donot see Barrons anywhere.
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20 Mar 2006, 01:08
I don't understand. Why is it not D for question 2? Whats the meaning of passive?
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20 Mar 2006, 18:58
for 2nd sentence

A ruled out who was cowering?
B still ambiguous
C ambiguous
D sounds correct
E no comma before who, ambiguous
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21 Mar 2006, 12:38
karlfurt wrote:
Selene : "helping" is a gerund -so a noun- here. and it is correct to use it after "his"

Why not....but why not just using "his help". If the gerund is use like a noun, isnt it better to directly use the noun "help". Why make it complicate when it could be simple?

It is not "his help". it is "his helping" and "him helping" is a better usage..
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21 Mar 2006, 15:35
First one:

Everyone / every single one is singular and therefore the verb needs to be in singular. Eliminates A, C, and E.

B â€“ â€œhis helping usâ€
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21 Mar 2006, 15:47
wow... wrong on both... haha..

Q1: makes sense now... although I'm having a hard time grasping the concept

Q2: I still vote for E. In C, it is a little unclear who "cowering..." modifies.
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21 Mar 2006, 18:27
We should consider the construction "his helping us" as a whole.
"his help" makes sense
"he helping us" makes sense
"his help to us" makes sense
"his helping" (without us) makes sense

but not his helping us....
his <noun> us does not make sense at all...
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Re: Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us [#permalink]

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18 Aug 2016, 22:31
chuckle wrote:
Vow!!! Both of my answers are wrong
I can at least attempt to understand the answer for Question 1 to be B.
But, I still do not understand the answer for Question 2.
Won't the "Cowering" modify "she" and not the "child" in C???

I agree with you. For Question 2, (C) seems wrong because of its ambiguous modifier "cowering" part. It seems like it is modifying "she" rather than "child". Also, (E) seems definitely fine, but what's up with (D)? Is the active form always preferred to the passive one? Considering the context of the sentence, by putting a "frightened child" at the head of the sentence, it seems to be more emphasized and vivid. Is there any possibility or any case when the passive one could be the answer in the GMAT?
Re: Everyone of us have understood that without him helping us   [#permalink] 18 Aug 2016, 22:31

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