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For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers

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Manager
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For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers [#permalink] New post 17 Jun 2005, 04:33
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For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers is a costly mistake, because all its labor disputes must then be settled by binding arbitration, without any negotiated public-sector labor settlements guiding the arbitrators. Strikes should be outlawed only for categories of public-sector workers for whose services no acceptable substitute exists.

The statements above best support which of the following conclusions?

(A) Where public-service workers are permitted to strike, contract negotiations with those workers are typically settled without a strike.

(B) Where strikes by all categories of pubic-sector workers are outlawed, no acceptable substitutes for the services provided by any of those workers are available.

(C) Binding arbitration tends to be more advantageous for public-service workers where it is the only available means of settling labor disputes with such workers.

(D) Most categories of public-sector workers have no counterparts in the private sector.

(E) A strike by workers in a local government is unlikely to be settled without help from an arbitrator.
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Jun 2005, 09:25
This one is hard. My guess is C by process of elimination. I think the other ones either are out of scope or aren't necessarily supported by the information in the passage.
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Jun 2005, 10:44
A covers only one aspect
B is also extreme.. Although it is mentioned in the argument but not for all categories....
C look good
D is out of scope
E also covers one aspect.

C it is..
VP
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 [#permalink] New post 17 Jun 2005, 12:52
One more for C
  [#permalink] 17 Jun 2005, 12:52
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For a local government to outlaw all strikes by its workers

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