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# For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription

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Re: For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription [#permalink]  11 Apr 2012, 09:56
Expert's post
Is this a Weaken or resolve the paradox question?

It seems to me that it is a resolve since we have two contradicting sets of facts. But what makes this a possibility for a weaken question is that it has a conclusion.

Any help to explain what question type this is?

It is a 'resolve the paradox' question. There is a paradox here:
There is price freeze and more medicine is not being sold. Still, per capita expenditure is increasing.
You have to explain the paradox.
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Get started with Veritas Prep GMAT On Demand for $199 Veritas Prep Reviews Intern Joined: 05 Jun 2012 Posts: 1 Followers: 0 Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 4 Re: For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription [#permalink] 02 Jul 2012, 10:32 "the ministry of health prohibited drug manufacturers from raising any of their products’ prices." That one word, "raising", hold the key to this question. They can't RAISE the price, but they can make new ones at a higher price. Thus, answer choice A. Sneaky b@$t@rd\$.

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Re: For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription [#permalink]  02 Jul 2012, 10:47
Govt.banned the price hike on(say 100 ) medicines ....manufacturers found that the sales will not give them a substantial profit margin which has been around 15% every year SO, THEY STARTED manufacturing new medicines, not listed in those 100 medicines list and hence the per capita expenditure on prescription kept increasing.
+1 for (A)
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For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription [#permalink]  31 Jul 2014, 03:09
I think A and C are good options

But if you look at last line :per capita expenditure for prescription drugs continued to increase by a substantial percentage each year.

Continued increase is possible by bringing new product and by improving technology(* technology can be improved to at some level)

So A is correct!!!
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Re: For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription [#permalink]  30 Nov 2014, 18:31
D is wrong for following reason.
If the price of prescription drugs did not change how would prescribing generic drug increase the per capita expenditure? actually it will decrease significantly because these are generally cheaper, but one must not bring in this generic and premium concept here, but the point is it will not increase so the statement does nothing.

A says that manufacturer did not raise prices of existing drugs as prohibited by law but instead came up with different drugs which replaced existing for which no law existed now since argument says per capita expenditure increase (take that as a must be true conclusion) these drugs were expensive then existing ones.

remember in these kind of question we do not have to look for 100% likely even 5% likelihood is enough for the answer to be correct. GMAC is awesome in coming up with these kinds of question.

cialit0506 wrote:
For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription drugs in Voronia rose by fifteen percent or more annually. In order to curb these dramatic increases, the ministry of health prohibited drug manufacturers from raising any of their products’ prices. Even though use of prescription drugs did not expand after this price freeze, per capita expenditure for prescription drugs continued to increase by a substantial percentage each year.

Which of the following, if true, most helps to explain why the ministry’s action did not achieve its goal?

A. After price increases were prohibited, drug manufacturers concentrated on producing new medications to replace existing products
B. The population of Voronia rose steadily throughout the period
C. Improvements in manufacturing processes enable drug manufacturers to maintain high profit levels on drugs despite the price freeze.
D. In addition to imposing a price freeze, the government encouraged doctors to prescribe generic versions of common drugs instead of the more expensive brand-name versions
E. After price increases were prohibited, some foreign manufacturers of expensive drugs ceased marketing them in Voronia.

I cannot get my head round the reasonings of the OA. No matter how I look at it, D seems the best answer. If D is true, wouldn’t per capita expenditure of drugs increase?

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Re: For several years, per capita expenditure on prescription   [#permalink] 30 Nov 2014, 18:31

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