Find all School-related info fast with the new School-Specific MBA Forum

It is currently 30 May 2016, 15:34
GMAT Club Tests

Close

GMAT Club Daily Prep

Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

Events & Promotions

Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the

  new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  
Author Message
TAGS:

Hide Tags

2 KUDOS received
Senior Manager
Senior Manager
avatar
Joined: 07 Nov 2009
Posts: 312
Followers: 7

Kudos [?]: 382 [2] , given: 20

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Jul 2010, 05:59
2
This post received
KUDOS
16
This post was
BOOKMARKED
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

Difficulty:

  95% (hard)

Question Stats:

35% (03:41) correct 65% (02:13) wrong based on 995 sessions

HideShow timer Statistics

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
1 KUDOS received
Director
Director
avatar
Status: Impossible is not a fact. It's an opinion. It's a dare. Impossible is nothing.
Affiliations: University of Chicago Booth School of Business
Joined: 26 Nov 2009
Posts: 994
Location: Singapore
Followers: 19

Kudos [?]: 644 [1] , given: 36

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Jul 2010, 07:41
1
This post received
KUDOS
1
This post was
BOOKMARKED
Conclusion :

The coexistence of feudalism and noble class is NOT to be treated causal in nature. Law is required to sanction titles of nobility. However its not true that existence of feudalism required the existence of noble class.

B, D and E contradict the arg.

C has no bearing on the argument.
_________________

Please press kudos if you like my post.

Senior Manager
Senior Manager
avatar
Joined: 23 May 2010
Posts: 442
Followers: 5

Kudos [?]: 75 [0], given: 112

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Jul 2010, 19:50
A
Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 11 May 2010
Posts: 224
Followers: 3

Kudos [?]: 83 [0], given: 11

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Jul 2010, 21:32
I pick E, but I think I understand why A is right now.

Argument:

History: Feudalism is in the same time with noble class, in 8th century.
Nobility, first appear in 12th century.

A - Nobility appear first Feudalism is wrong according to history ==> Like what the argument said

B - Dominant class could be king, knights... we don't know, so we can't say for sure feudaslim functioned without a dominant class -> WRONG

C - Societal group and social class were not discussed -> Out of scope -> WRONG

D - "The only cause" -> Too extreme, without proper evidence in the argument -> WRONG

E - Feudal institutions is a prerequisite of nobility -> sound like Feudal is a MUST for nobility to happen, there is no evidence in the argument suggest that -> WRONG
Senior Manager
Senior Manager
avatar
Joined: 14 Jun 2010
Posts: 333
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 19 [0], given: 7

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 26 Aug 2010, 22:14
by POE i was down to A and C-C because I JUST DIDNT UNDERSTAND what they meant in C :-) So it had to be A
Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 28 Feb 2010
Posts: 176
WE 1: 3 (Mining Operations)
Followers: 6

Kudos [?]: 29 [0], given: 33

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 27 Aug 2010, 01:58
IMO A but @ 3:22...:(
_________________

Regards,
Invincible...:)
"The way to succeed is to double your error rate."
"Most people who succeed in the face of seemingly impossible conditions are people who simply don't know how to quit."

Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 15 Apr 2010
Posts: 170
Followers: 4

Kudos [?]: 54 [0], given: 3

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 04 Sep 2010, 01:16
I picked D first... Now I know where I went wrong :)
Intern
Intern
avatar
Joined: 20 Apr 2010
Posts: 38
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 1 [0], given: 7

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 20 Oct 2010, 19:46
A but 2:32 : |
Manager
Manager
avatar
Joined: 25 Aug 2010
Posts: 98
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 4 [0], given: 1

Re: feudalism [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 21 Oct 2010, 10:00
i had pick up C ..but from the above replies..comes to know its A
Manager
Manager
avatar
Status: Bunuel's fan!
Joined: 08 Jul 2011
Posts: 242
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 29 [0], given: 55

Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 12 May 2012, 00:09
This one is such a tough one. I understand the question but I don't quite get option A. I originally picked C and agreed it was not the best option.
Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 13 Feb 2012
Posts: 147
Location: Italy
Concentration: General Management, Entrepreneurship
GMAT 1: 560 Q36 V34
GPA: 3.1
WE: Sales (Transportation)
Followers: 4

Kudos [?]: 6 [0], given: 85

Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 22 Jan 2013, 10:15
Some rephrasing might just help here: the author is pointing out that a noble class needs the legitimacy of a stated rule, this was not until the 12th century. This makes B C and E unlikely. D it's actually against the argument, looks to me.., so A.
_________________

"The Burnout" - My Debrief

Kudos if I helped you ;)


Andy

Current Student
avatar
Joined: 25 Dec 2012
Posts: 58
Location: India
Concentration: Strategy, Sustainability
Schools: Fisher '16 (M)
GPA: 4
WE: Information Technology (Consulting)
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 8 [0], given: 6

Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 22 Jan 2013, 19:15
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.


For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. - Opening premise

Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. - Negating the flow with a YET.

=> opening premise nobleclass -> feudalism.
+
second premise there cannot be a noble class.
=
combing the above two you get option A.

The other statement marks the timeline and with the options given it is not necessary to discuss.

That`s my take.
Expert Post
10 KUDOS received
Veritas Prep GMAT Instructor
User avatar
Joined: 16 Oct 2010
Posts: 6584
Location: Pune, India
Followers: 1795

Kudos [?]: 10813 [10] , given: 212

Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 29 May 2014, 22:14
10
This post received
KUDOS
Expert's post
1
This post was
BOOKMARKED
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.


Here is the argument in simple words:

First, you must understand what feudalism is. Here is an excerpt from the online dictionary:
Feudalism: A system of obligations that bound lords and their subjects in Europe during much of the Middle Ages. In theory, the king owned all or most of the land and gave it to his leading nobles in return for their loyalty and military service. The nobles in turn held land that peasants, including serfs, were allowed to farm in return for the peasants' labor and a portion of their produce. Under feudalism, people were born with a permanent position in society.
It is the legal and social system that evolved in W Europe in the 8th and 9th centuries, in which vassals were protected and maintained by their lords, usually through the granting of fiefs, and were required to serve under them in war...

Here is what the author tells you:

For writers who coined the term feudalism, existence of noble class was a must. Yet, the author says that legal sanction of status and inheritance of titles are a must to have a noble class. The author also says that feudalism existed in 8th century but inheritance of titles got legalized only in 12th century. The issue then is that how can "feudalism - the way it is defined" exist in 8th century if title inheritance was not legal at that time. So as far as actual history is concerned, existence of a nobility (status and title inheritance) cannot be necessary

Hence (A) makes complete sense.

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.

As for (C),
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.

This cannot be inferred from the argument. The argument tells us that legal status is necessary to consider a societal group a social class. Whether it is sufficient or not, we do not know. Also, the argument only talks about the noble class; we don't know whether it holds for all social classes.
_________________

Karishma
Veritas Prep | GMAT Instructor
My Blog

Get started with Veritas Prep GMAT On Demand for $199

Veritas Prep Reviews

Intern
Intern
avatar
Joined: 08 Aug 2011
Posts: 17
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 65 [0], given: 17

GMAT ToolKit User
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 29 May 2014, 22:32
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.

The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?

(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.


This is an inference question, so let's first understand the facts.

Some people claim that if we have Feudalism, we have a Noble Class. Technically, a Noble Class requires both Title Laws and Inheritance Laws, and we didn't see Inheritance Laws until the 12th century, but Feudalism definitely existed in the 8th century.

So according to the strict definition, Feudalism didn't exist until the 12th century, but in reality Feudalism was alive way before then. --> the strict definition must be too narrow, as it can't accurately account for reality. That's answer A.

As for C: Do we have any reason to believe that "legal status does not necessarily imply social class"? I think to be able to infer this we would need to see two things: (1) an example of something with legal status but no social class, and (2) and example of something with social class but no legal status. Even if we try to fit the Noble Class discussed in the question to one of those two examples, we would need the other one as well, and it's just not there.
Manager
Manager
avatar
Joined: 09 Apr 2013
Posts: 152
Location: India
WE: Supply Chain Management (Consulting)
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 75 [0], given: 24

GMAT ToolKit User
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 01 Nov 2014, 10:20
Tough one. Went with C initially.
_________________

+1 KUDOS is the best way to say thanks :-)

"Pay attention to every detail"

GMAT Club Legend
GMAT Club Legend
User avatar
Joined: 01 Oct 2013
Posts: 7711
Followers: 713

Kudos [?]: 144 [0], given: 0

Premium Member
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 08 Dec 2015, 20:19
Hello from the GMAT Club VerbalBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

Want to see all other topics I dig out? Follow me (click follow button on profile). You will receive a summary of all topics I bump in your profile area as well as via email.
Manager
Manager
User avatar
Joined: 07 Jun 2015
Posts: 56
WE: Design (Aerospace and Defense)
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 3 [0], given: 5

Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink]

Show Tags

New post 22 Dec 2015, 11:02
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the   [#permalink] 22 Dec 2015, 11:02
    Similar topics Author Replies Last post
Similar
Topics:
5 Experts publish their posts in the topic #Top150 CR: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name souvik101990 2 08 Dec 2015, 11:02
1 Researchers gave 100 first-graders after-school lessons in handwriting samichange 3 09 Sep 2015, 02:26
5 Experts publish their posts in the topic Kitchen magazine plans to license the use of its name sahilchaudhary 5 10 Dec 2013, 03:43
17 Experts publish their posts in the topic A few people who are bad writers simply cannot improve their imhimanshu 12 23 Jul 2012, 06:17
31 Kitchen magazine plans to license the use of its name by a vladmoney 35 05 Mar 2009, 20:11
Display posts from previous: Sort by

For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the

  new topic post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics  


GMAT Club MBA Forum Home| About| Terms and Conditions| GMAT Club Rules| Contact| Sitemap

Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO

Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.