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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the

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For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink] New post 21 Jul 2010, 04:59
00:00
A
B
C
D
E

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39% (06:06) correct 60% (02:06) wrong based on 211 sessions
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.
[Reveal] Spoiler: OA
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 21 Jul 2010, 06:41
Conclusion :

The coexistence of feudalism and noble class is NOT to be treated causal in nature. Law is required to sanction titles of nobility. However its not true that existence of feudalism required the existence of noble class.

B, D and E contradict the arg.

C has no bearing on the argument.
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 21 Jul 2010, 18:50
A
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 21 Jul 2010, 20:32
I pick E, but I think I understand why A is right now.

Argument:

History: Feudalism is in the same time with noble class, in 8th century.
Nobility, first appear in 12th century.

A - Nobility appear first Feudalism is wrong according to history ==> Like what the argument said

B - Dominant class could be king, knights... we don't know, so we can't say for sure feudaslim functioned without a dominant class -> WRONG

C - Societal group and social class were not discussed -> Out of scope -> WRONG

D - "The only cause" -> Too extreme, without proper evidence in the argument -> WRONG

E - Feudal institutions is a prerequisite of nobility -> sound like Feudal is a MUST for nobility to happen, there is no evidence in the argument suggest that -> WRONG
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 26 Aug 2010, 21:14
by POE i was down to A and C-C because I JUST DIDNT UNDERSTAND what they meant in C :-) So it had to be A
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 27 Aug 2010, 00:58
IMO A but @ 3:22...:(
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 04 Sep 2010, 00:16
I picked D first... Now I know where I went wrong :)
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 20 Oct 2010, 18:46
A but 2:32 : |
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Re: feudalism [#permalink] New post 21 Oct 2010, 09:00
i had pick up C ..but from the above replies..comes to know its A
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink] New post 11 May 2012, 23:09
This one is such a tough one. I understand the question but I don't quite get option A. I originally picked C and agreed it was not the best option.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink] New post 22 Jan 2013, 09:15
Some rephrasing might just help here: the author is pointing out that a noble class needs the legitimacy of a stated rule, this was not until the 12th century. This makes B C and E unlikely. D it's actually against the argument, looks to me.., so A.
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Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the [#permalink] New post 22 Jan 2013, 18:15
rohitgoel15 wrote:
For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. Although feudalism existed in Europe as early as the eighth century, it was not until the twelfth century, when many feudal institutions were in decline, that the hereditary transfer of legally recognized titles of nobility first appeared.
The statements above, if true, most strongly support which one of the following claims?
(A) To say that feudalism by definition requires the existence of a nobility is to employ a definition that distorts history.
(B) Prior to the twelfth century, the institution of European feudalism functioned without the presence of a dominant class.
(C) The fact that a societal group has a distinct legal status is not in itself sufficient to allow that group to be properly considered a social class.
(D) The decline of feudalism in Europe was the only cause of the rise of a European nobility.
(E) The prior existence of feudal institutions is a prerequisite for the emergence of a nobility, as defined in the strictest sense of the term.


For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the existence of feudalism presupposed the existence of a noble class. - Opening premise

Yet there cannot be a noble class, properly speaking, unless both the titles that indicate superior, noble status and the inheritance of such titles are sanctioned by law. - Negating the flow with a YET.

=> opening premise nobleclass -> feudalism.
+
second premise there cannot be a noble class.
=
combing the above two you get option A.

The other statement marks the timeline and with the options given it is not necessary to discuss.

That`s my take.
Re: For the writers who first gave feudalism its name, the   [#permalink] 22 Jan 2013, 18:15
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