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Question with right answer according to OG is:
"None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains why most of the people exposed to the alleged causes do not commit crimes and, conversely, why so many of those not so exposed do."
The question tests the last part of the sentence, verb do. I understand why the underlined portion is do, as specified by OG. However, I am confused about the grammatical structure in the beginning of the sentence:
"None of the attempts to specify the causes of crime explains...."
Isn't None of the attempts plural? (Because the attempts is plural)
Re: For this question, is OG correct? [#permalink]
04 May 2011, 16:54
Ditto the above. There was a discussion on these forums a while back about this same issue-- technically "none of" + plural or singular can be treated as either a plural or singular subject; in most cases GMAC defaults to the singular. A good general principle for those gray-area subject/verb agreement issues is "when in doubt, vote singular"--that won't steer you right 100% of the time, but you'll be far better off than you'd be if you had leaned the other way.
Note: you won't be put in a position to choose between two technically correct answers so don't stress (notice here, you can't do anything bc that grammatical choice appears in the non-underlined portion). _________________