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Question Stats:
0% (00:00) correct
 0% (00:00) wrong based on 0 sessions
Give it a try....
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D should be the answer, as it supports the conclusion drawn from first study.
regards,
Amardeep
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For me the answer should be "B"..What's the OA?
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Re: CR - TV Aggression [#permalink]
 02 Apr 2007, 07:42
I would pick C..
what is the OA ?
X & Y wrote: Give it a try....
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Amardeep Sharma wrote: D should be the answer, as it supports the conclusion drawn from first study.
regards,
Amardeep
How?
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Re: CR - TV Aggression [#permalink]
02 Apr 2007, 16:08
Vote C
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I would go with (C).
It clearly give us an idea about 2 different cases.
(B) is out because the topic is related to the similar communities.
(D) is also out. The first study describes the short-term exposure but the second study gives us insight about the children who had already got used to watch TV for a long time.
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D.
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I'll take C.
In the passage, we're only told the second community that has been exposed to tv shows for decades did not show any change in aggression rate.
From this, we can only conclude C, because the second community only tells us the aggression rate will not increase over decades, nevermind the increase in the first early stages of exposure to tv.
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I vote for C.
Eventhough the short term exposure increases the agression, the long term exposure to television moderates the agression, shown in the second study.
What is OA?
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OA is D. You guys think this is a 400, 500, 600 or 700 question?
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how can it be D? what's the OE.
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ywilfred wrote: how can it be D? what's the OE.
I remember having read this question and its explanation some time ago and I was not convinced. If I remember correctly the explanation was something like this. Choice D does not contradict the conclusion drawn by the study. Hence choice D supports the conclusion drawn in the study.
So there...
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Here is the OE.
Ans D.
(D) This is a complicated question and requires a complicated explanation. It is important to keep in mind just what the reported results are. Perhaps most important, nothing is said about the absolute values of the aggression rates, but only about changes in the rates. And nothing is said about how the rates in the other two communities compared with those of the first. The first study correlated two changes-the change from no TV to TV in 1973, as well as the change in aggression rates from 1973 to 1975. The tentative conclusion is that the first of these changes was the cause of the second change. The second study focused on communities in which there was no change --they were already well accustomed to TV in 1973. (Thus the second study focuses on a sort of natural "control group.") That study found that there was no change of the second type - aggression rates in those communities remained constant from 1973 to 1975. The second study thus tends to reduce the plausibility of the suggestion that some change other than the introduction of TV caused the rise in aggressiveness in the first community. If there was some other cause, at least it doesn't seem to have been acting in the communities of the second study. And that reduces the range of possible candidates. Thus the second study tends to make more probable the conclusion drawn from the first study.
Hope it helps.
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Certainly NG; The explanation is very well drafted. Do you guys have the source of this question and also could you share more such questions (along with their explanations after we have tried to answer those questions).
Thanks
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It is form one of the exams of 800score
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X & Y wrote: It is form one of the exams of 800score
Does the OE also explain why C is incorrect?
I think C is a better answer.
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It seems pretty twisted to me... just because of the fact that if there are other causes of aggression but since it's not showing up in the control group, it is still a stretch to say the only reason is because tv caused aggression and thus supports what is concluded in the first study...
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Re: CR - TV Aggression [#permalink]
03 Apr 2007, 09:58
I see now. Very good one.
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Re: CR - TV Aggression
[#permalink]
03 Apr 2007, 09:58
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