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Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton

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Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton [#permalink] New post 13 Apr 2006, 13:16
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A
B
C
D
E

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(N/A)

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13% (01:17) correct 88% (00:25) wrong based on 27 sessions
Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton nevertheless composed Paradise Lost, considered by many to be the greatest English epic.

A) Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain
B) With this sight lost to sustained eyestrain
C) Blinded by sustained eyestrain
D) Having been blinded by excessive eyestrain
E) Blinded with sustained eyestrain
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 [#permalink] New post 13 Apr 2006, 21:10
hhmm .. may be i can't say for sure. OA please with explanation?
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 [#permalink] New post 14 Apr 2006, 09:14
I think A is right.
Isn't the underlined a modifing phrase followed which refers to John Milton
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 [#permalink] New post 14 Apr 2006, 12:51
Even though C is concise, it seems to be missing 'although' in the beginning.

Nothing's wrong with A. My Choice A.

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 [#permalink] New post 14 Apr 2006, 18:14
OA is C.

Blinded, which acts as a past participle (adjective) here, correctly modifies the subject, John Milton.

The preposition with in E makes it sound as if eyestrain were a part of blindness. But eyestrain is the cause of blindness. The preposition by makes that clear.
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 [#permalink] New post 15 Apr 2006, 13:35
Late but C.

Blinded by strain, meaning the cause for blindness was strain.
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Re: SC - Milton's blindness [#permalink] New post 13 Oct 2011, 01:36
If C is the correct answer here, why do we have "nevertheless" in the sentence. Can someone clarify.

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Re: SC - Milton's blindness [#permalink] New post 13 Oct 2011, 03:48
I will go with A... To lose somethg to somethg is a correct idiom.
Blinded by in... C, is also correct but changes the meaning of the sentence.
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Re: SC - Milton's blindness [#permalink] New post 13 Oct 2011, 04:39
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Does C carry the original intent intact?

After all, blinded is not the same as ‘having lost sight’. ‘Having lost sight’ means that the sight is gone forever. However, ‘blinded’ has multi-facets of meanings. Very often, it means loss of perception or losing one’s balance of mind. It might also allude to a total bias.

Secondly ‘blinded’, as a past participle is tenseless, whereas ‘having lost’ implies that Milton had already lost his sight, when he sat to write Paradise Lost, adding a sensible sequence.

I am afraid C does not carry this intended meaning in full and therefore I would not fall for it, although its grammar is perfect.

However, isn’t meaning now the most indispensable in the new avatar of GMAT?

My take is A.

I am very sure this is no GMAT stuff because GMAT will never tolerate 'consider to be'. (Then does GMAT care for Idioms anymore?)
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Re: SC - Milton's blindness [#permalink] New post 13 Oct 2011, 07:26
daagh wrote:
I am very sure this is no GMAT stuff because GMAT will never tolerate 'consider to be'. (Then does GMAT care for Idioms anymore?)


This is from Kaplan 800 :).

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Re: Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton [#permalink] New post 26 Oct 2011, 00:58
I also feel it should be C.
But after reading Daagh's explanation I feel it should be A :)
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Re: Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton [#permalink] New post 26 Oct 2011, 21:08
I picked C..."blinded by.." it provides an explanation of what caused the blindness
Re: Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton   [#permalink] 26 Oct 2011, 21:08
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Having lost his sight to sustained eyestrain, John Milton

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