Find all School-related info fast with the new School-Specific MBA Forum

 It is currently 07 Jul 2015, 13:18

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# I know why now, but thought I'd share: 0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 =

Author Message
TAGS:
Manager
Joined: 30 Jul 2007
Posts: 129
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 12 [0], given: 0

I know why now, but thought I'd share: 0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 = [#permalink]  10 Sep 2008, 18:04
I know why now, but thought I'd share:

0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 = 1/1 = 1
SVP
Joined: 29 Aug 2007
Posts: 2493
Followers: 59

Kudos [?]: 579 [0], given: 19

Re: Why is zero factorial equal to one? [#permalink]  10 Sep 2008, 19:35
sarzan wrote:
I know why now, but thought I'd share:

0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 = 1/1 = 1

i think its more logical than mathmatical.

suppose there are 5 people. how many group(s) of 5 can be formed from 5 people.

the solution = 5c5 = 5!/[5!(5-5)!] = 5!/(5!0!)

lets use the logic: how many groups of 5 people can be formed from 5 people? 1 group. if we use 0! as 0, then the formula gives infinite groups, which is not correct. so here 0! has to be 1, then only the formula works for all scenarios. therefore, 0! = 1.

we can raise similar question: why $$x^0 = 1$$?

we can apply same logic.
_________________
Manager
Joined: 30 Jul 2007
Posts: 129
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 12 [0], given: 0

Re: Why is zero factorial equal to one? [#permalink]  10 Sep 2008, 19:39
GMAT TIGER wrote:
sarzan wrote:
I know why now, but thought I'd share:

0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 = 1/1 = 1

i think its more logical than mathmatical.

suppose there are 5 people. how many group(s) of 5 can be formed from 5 people.

the solution = 5c5 = 5!/[5!(5-5)!] = 5!/(5!0!)

lets use the logic: how many groups of 5 people can be formed from 5 people? 1 group. if we use 0! as 0, then the formula gives infinite groups, which is not correct. so here 0! has to be 1, then only the formula works for all scenarios. therefore, 0! = 1.

we can raise similar question: why $$x^0 = 1$$?

we can apply same logic.

great grasp tiger. thanks for the explanation.
Re: Why is zero factorial equal to one?   [#permalink] 10 Sep 2008, 19:39
Similar topics Replies Last post
Similar
Topics:
Came across these in an email, thought id share this w/ you 3 07 Nov 2007, 16:26
All of us know that n^0 = 1, but how many of us know why? I 2 03 Oct 2007, 02:23
thought i'd provide my opinion on a Friday to keep it light 9 10 Aug 2007, 07:49
I have the OG 10 and OG 11 books. Want to know how much 0 23 Nov 2006, 18:11
0!=1 why? we have : n!/n = (n-1)! ---> 0!= 1!/1= 1 1 16 Nov 2005, 07:23
Display posts from previous: Sort by

# I know why now, but thought I'd share: 0! = (1-1)! = 1!/1 =

 Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.