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Re: If a,b,c and d are positive integers, is (a/b) (c/d) > [#permalink]

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02 Aug 2010, 00:34

Stmt 2 is sufficient as follows:

LHS and RHS can be rearranged into (a/d)(c/b) > (c/b) As c and b are both positive (you don't need Stmt 1 for that), they can be cancelled out from both sides - which leaves us with a/d > 1 ??

Re: If a,b,c and d are positive integers, is (a/b) (c/d) > [#permalink]

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02 Aug 2010, 01:51

2

This post received KUDOS

\((\frac{a}{b})(\frac{c}{d})=(\frac{a}{d})(\frac{c}{b})>(\frac{c}{b})\) Since a, b, c, d are positive, so both sides can be divided by \((\frac{c}{b})\) \(\frac{(\frac{a}{d})(\frac{c}{b})}{(\frac{c}{b})}>\frac{(\frac{c}{b})}{(\frac{c}{b})}\) or \(\frac{a}{d}>1\) or a>d

Re: If a,b,c and d are positive integers, is (a/b) (c/d) > [#permalink]

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04 May 2016, 14:42

Hello from the GMAT Club BumpBot!

Thanks to another GMAT Club member, I have just discovered this valuable topic, yet it had no discussion for over a year. I am now bumping it up - doing my job. I think you may find it valuable (esp those replies with Kudos).

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