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st 1 says 1/(k-1)>0 that means k-1>0 that means k>1 that means k is +ve and thus 1/k>0 ... suff

st2 says 1/(k+1) >0 that means k+1>0 i.e k>-1 that means k can -ve fraction or k is positive . if k is -neg fraction 1/k <0 and if k is +ve 1/k >0 so insuff

Hi Guys,
The OA is A. Can anybody explain how did thi answer come??

As per the solutions given by folks since one says 1/(k-1) >0 it implies k-1 <0 or k<1 therefore K maybe greater that 0 0r less than 0. SO how come the correct answer is A in GMAT PREP.

Hi Guys, The OA is A. Can anybody explain how did thi answer come??

As per the solutions given by folks since one says 1/(k-1) >0 it implies k-1 <0 or k<1 therefore K maybe greater that 0 0r less than 0. SO how come the correct answer is A in GMAT PREP.

fig is this right or wrong why we did it your way?? eg: 1/x< 5 thus x>1/5

but if

1/x <0 we cant say x>1/0 because it is not defined ......right or wrong

Yes don't use the flip sign method when you have zero on the right side. In stead, think this way. For a product or ratio of two numbers to be positive, the two numbers have to have the same sign; for the product or ratio to be negative, the two numbers must have different signs.
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