Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.

Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:

Re: GMat club test M11 doubt [#permalink]
16 Sep 2012, 17:30

How is it possible that Z-Y=Y-X if X=Z according to (1)? I read somewhere 1 and 2 can't conflict on DS questions

If z and x are equal, you'd get a negative on one side of the equation and a positive on the other side... Just saying (1) x=z conflicts with (2) z - y = y- x unless they are all zero, but that isn't possible since the question says they're positive.

skpMatcha wrote:

No where is it mentioned,nor can you deduce that x < y < z,

Stmt B says Z –y = y - x

which means y is equidistant from x and z

could be

z.................y..............x or x............y................z

Re: If x, y and z are positive integers, is x% of y bigger than [#permalink]
16 Sep 2012, 18:21

1

This post received KUDOS

Probably this approach of solving the question should help you understand:

x% of y is bigger than y% of z

essentially question is asking whether xy >yz or xy-yz >0 or y(x-z) >0 ? ->Lets call it 'The question statement' or TQS

We know that x, y and z are positive integers. Therefore y >0 and hence we would be able to answer if we know about (x-z) [Sign or Value either should do]

1. x=z

Putting in TQS we can see y(x-z) = y* 0 = 0. so we know the relation x% y = y% z. Therefore SUFFICIENT

2. z-y = y-x or (z+x) =2Y

So we know z+x is positive (But we already knew it since X and Z both are positive) However we still do not know about x-z. Therefore we do not know about TQS. Therefore , INSUFFICIENT.

Re: GMat club test M11 doubt [#permalink]
17 Sep 2012, 04:00

1

This post received KUDOS

ctiger100 wrote:

How is it possible that Z-Y=Y-X if X=Z according to (1)? I read somewhere 1 and 2 can't conflict on DS questions

The statements are not contradictory here; they can both be true if x=y=z. For example, if x = y = z = 6, you'll find that both statements are true, and these values agree with the restrictions in the question itself.
_________________

Nov 2011: After years of development, I am now making my advanced Quant books and high-level problem sets available for sale. Contact me at ianstewartgmat at gmail.com for details.

Re: If x, y and z are positive integers, is x% of y bigger than [#permalink]
17 Sep 2012, 04:53

Answer is A. Question is (X/100)Y > (Y/100)Z --> Is X>Z ? Statement 1 Directly states that X=Z, so X is not greater than Z. Statement 2 Y=(X+Z)/2 ---> We just get to know that Y is the midpoint of X & Z. Magnitude of either X or Z is not known.
_________________

I will rather do nothing than be busy doing nothing - Zen saying

Because statement B says x<y<z, so the statement is enough to ans the statement.

If x, y, and z are positive integers, is x% of y greater than y% of z?

The question asks: is \frac{x}{100}*y>\frac{y}{100}*z? --> Since y is a positive integer we can safely reduce by \frac{y}{100} and the question becomes: is x>z? Notice that the answer to the question does not depend on the value of y.

(1) x=z. Answer to the question is NO. Sufficient. (2) z-y=y-x --> x+z=2y. Clearly insufficient to say whether x>z.

Because statement B says x<y<z, so the statement is enough to ans the statement.

If x, y, and z are positive integers, is x% of y greater than y% of z?

The question asks: is \frac{x}{100}*y>\frac{y}{100}*z? --> Since y is a positive integer we can safely reduce by \frac{y}{100} and the question becomes: is x>z? Notice that the answer to the question does not depend on the value of y.

(1) x=z. Answer to the question is NO. Sufficient. (2) z-y=y-x --> x+z=2y. Clearly insufficient to say whether x>z.

Answer: A.

Bunuel, can you please explain how you reduce by \frac{y}{100} ? If we divide the inequality by \frac{y}{100} then we get 100 on one side and 1 on the other, no ?

Because statement B says x<y<z, so the statement is enough to ans the statement.

If x, y, and z are positive integers, is x% of y greater than y% of z?

The question asks: is \frac{x}{100}*y>\frac{y}{100}*z? --> Since y is a positive integer we can safely reduce by \frac{y}{100} and the question becomes: is x>z? Notice that the answer to the question does not depend on the value of y.

(1) x=z. Answer to the question is NO. Sufficient. (2) z-y=y-x --> x+z=2y. Clearly insufficient to say whether x>z.

Answer: A.

Bunuel, can you please explain how you reduce by \frac{y}{100} ? If we divide the inequality by \frac{y}{100} then we get 100 on one side and 1 on the other, no ?