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In 1973, a remote town first acquired television. Shortly

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In 1973, a remote town first acquired television. Shortly [#permalink] New post 14 Jan 2006, 14:43
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A
B
C
D
E

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In 1973, a remote town first acquired television. Shortly before broadcasts began there, a study was made of children's behavior. A similar study in the same community,

after two years of TV, showed that the aggression rate among children of this age had increased by 160%. The conclusion drawn was that TV plays an important role in

generating aggressive behavior in children. A similar study, covering the same years, was made in two similar communities that had had television for decades. This study

showed no change in the aggression rate from 1973 to 1975. The results of the second study:

A) suggest that the prevalence of violent themes in TV programming may be explained by the tendencies toward violence which are deeply-rooted in human nature.

B) indicate that different social groups may react quite differently to similar stimuli.

C) demonstrate that long-term exposure to TV has no more severe effects than short-term exposure.

D) support the conclusion drawn from the first study.

E) disprove the conclusion drawn from the first study.
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Re: CR-Television [#permalink] New post 14 Jan 2006, 16:38
andy_gr8 wrote:
A) suggest that the prevalence of violent themes in TV programming may be explained by the tendencies toward violence which are deeply-rooted in human nature. - Author is not talking about violent themes in TV programming .Out of scope.

B) indicate that different social groups may react quite differently to similar stimuli. Both the studies were done in similar communities.

C) demonstrate that long-term exposure to TV has no more severe effects than short-term exposure. Long term or short term exposure is not the point being discussed here.

D) support the conclusion drawn from the first study. - Not at all.

E) disprove the conclusion drawn from the first study. - Yes this is the one. With all conditions remaining same in both studies, second study's results are opposite to those of first.

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 [#permalink] New post 14 Jan 2006, 21:09
i think E.
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 [#permalink] New post 14 Jan 2006, 23:06
Sure, E. There must have been some other factor involved to raise the violent tendencies of the children.
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 [#permalink] New post 14 Jan 2006, 23:09
:beat

Good one guys..i dont know why i chose C..
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 [#permalink] New post 15 Jan 2006, 15:28
I dont agree with E. The other community did not measure difference in behaviour before and after tv. It showed difference between people already watching tv in 73 and 75... I dont think these two experiments are comparable at all.

I think ti should be C, because they do mention that these communities have been watching tv for decades..

What is OA?
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 [#permalink] New post 15 Jan 2006, 19:05
willget800 wrote:
I dont agree with E. The other community did not measure difference in behaviour before and after tv. It showed difference between people already watching tv in 73 and 75... I dont think these two experiments are comparable at all.

I think ti should be C, because they do mention that these communities have been watching tv for decades..

What is OA?


I also have same concern.
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 [#permalink] New post 15 Jan 2006, 20:25
I believe it is C too.. :lol:
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 [#permalink] New post 15 Jan 2006, 20:50
OA is D


(D) This is a complicated question and requires a complicated explanation. It is important to keep in mind just what the reported results are. Perhaps most importantly, nothing is said about the absolute values of the aggression rates, but only about changes in the rates. And nothing is said about how the rates in the other two communities compared with those of the first. The first study correlated two changes-the change from no TV to TV in 1973 and the change in aggression rates from 1973 to 1975. And the tentative conclusion is that the first of these changes was the cause of the second change. The second study focused on communities in which there was no change of the first sort-they were already well accustomed to TV in 1973. (Thus the second study focuses on a sort of natural 'control group.') That study found that there was no change of the second type - aggression rates in those communities remained constant from 1973 to 1975. The second study thus tends to reduce the plausibility of the suggestion that some change other than the introduction of TV caused the rise in aggressiveness in the first community (it acts as a 'control' to this experiment.) If there were some other cause, at least it doesn't seem to have been acting in the communities of the second study. And that reduces the range of possible candidates. Thus the second study tends to make more probable the conclusion drawn from the first.
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 [#permalink] New post 16 Jan 2006, 07:23
Andy: This is a great explaination...
THis kind of thought process will surely take you to 750+ club.
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 [#permalink] New post 16 Jan 2006, 09:44
This is a classical scope shift.

the sudies don ot really compare the same things.

Study a concludes with some thing. While study B does not questions A at all it is about a completely different thing. For all you know children in the second town would have also reacted the same way if the study there was made during the first 2 years TV was launched there .

therefore it does not contadict A.
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 [#permalink] New post 16 Jan 2006, 10:46
mahesh004 wrote:
Andy: This is a great explaination...
THis kind of thought process will surely take you to 750+ club.


Mahesh i wish this was my explanation...and i cud have made it to 700, forget 750;)

This is 800score.com's explanationm :lol:
  [#permalink] 16 Jan 2006, 10:46
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