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# In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners

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Re: Italian vintners [#permalink]  09 Jan 2013, 23:17
sprtng wrote:
by POE, got C, but dont know how this is correct...i still think it should be past tense...

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are -have been/are tense mismatch
(B) are priced to sell, and they have -they have what?
(C) are priced to sell, and they do -tense wise are ok, but i dont know why this could be right
(D) are being priced to sell, and have -and who have what? are being is also awkward
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have -had been? tense incorrect

The word " sell" is not in the last part because of ellipsis (where certain words can be omitted without breaking parallelism). However, the omitted word(s) must already appear in the sentence and must make sense when substituted back in (sub in and check).

Regarding what you mentioned about tense mismatch, parallelism can be done in a variety of ways, so it doesn't always hold that the tenses must be parallel (but they must be logical)

Just looking at parallelism:
(A) have been priced to sell, and they are (priced to sell -> repeating info in first bit so redundant)
(B) are priced to sell, and they have (priced to sell -> nonsense when slotted back in)
(C) are priced to sell, and they do (sell- makes sense)
(D) are being priced to sell, and have (priced to sell -> again nonsensical)
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have (been priced to sell -> ditto)
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  27 Oct 2013, 18:31
what i'm still wondering is that in the second part of the sentence, "Their" refers to the Italian Vintners, so then subsequently the next pronoun "they" should also be referring to Italian Vitners?

With the above interpretation, the only answer that makes sense and does not use the "they" referent (which I argue could be interpreted to mean italian vintners" is choice D.
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  27 Oct 2013, 19:01
themichael wrote:
what i'm still wondering is that in the second part of the sentence, "Their" refers to the Italian Vintners, so then subsequently the next pronoun "they" should also be referring to Italian Vitners?

With the above interpretation, the only answer that makes sense and does not use the "they" referent (which I argue could be interpreted to mean italian vintners" is choice D.

This is a 1000 SC question,which is a unreliable source of practice, you may ignore the question without wasting more time over it

What you can remember is you only use possessive pronouns with possessive nouns.

and the pronoun will usually agree with the nearest noun (wine-they)
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  27 Oct 2013, 19:08
dentobizz wrote:
themichael wrote:
what i'm still wondering is that in the second part of the sentence, "Their" refers to the Italian Vintners, so then subsequently the next pronoun "they" should also be referring to Italian Vitners?

With the above interpretation, the only answer that makes sense and does not use the "they" referent (which I argue could be interpreted to mean italian vintners" is choice D.

This is a 1000 SC question,which is a unreliable source of practice, you may ignore the question without wasting more time over it

What you can remember is you only use possessive pronouns with possessive nouns.

and the pronoun will usually agree with the nearest noun (wine-they)

Hi - this question is actually question #91 on page 688 of the OG13. That's why I am hoping to get some clarity on this potential ambiguity.

Regards.
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  28 Oct 2013, 00:36
http://www.manhattangmat.com/forums/og-sc-81-t1270.html
in-an-effort-to-reduce-their-inventories-italian-vintners-150552.html?fl=similar

The OG question has been discussed previously too. Pls. refer to the discussion links above.

Pls. remember that pronoun ambiguity is not a make or break issue on the gmat meaning that there will be several other errors that will make an option incorrect in addition to pronoun ambiguity. Gmat would never ask you to choose the correct option on the basis of pronoun ambiguity alone.
Here the issue with other options are: incorrect use of present perfect tense, wrong second verb and incorrect punctuation (comma).
'They' is correct since it represents wines (its closest noun) as well as makes logical sense.

Hope this helps. Let me know if you would like the POE details as well.
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  10 Nov 2013, 09:52
Choose POE to eliminate A,B,D,E.

A,D,E - are unnecessarily wordy due to use of been and being and incorrect tense usage.
B - are priced to sell, they have (seems incomplete...) is incorrect
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners [#permalink]  31 Oct 2014, 17:01
egmat wrote:
KevinBrink wrote:
I agree with AdeelSilat, how on earth can wines sell themselves. So A can be the only correct answer. I know this is not OA however this questions is full of ****!

Hi KevinBrink,

In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell, and they are.

This is an official question – OG13#91 – created by the creators of the GMAT. The quality of their questions is unparalleled. I guess, you are not able to understand the meaning of this problem, and that is why it is giving you a tough time. So let’s get started with meaning analysis.

Meaning Analysis:

Italian wine sellers have cut prices of their wines because they want to reduce their stock. They have priced their wine such so that they sell, and the wines actually sell because of this reduced price.

Error Analysis:

Now let’s look at the errors in the original sentence:
The first past of the underlined portion says the wines have been priced to sell. The second part says “they are”. So here we have ellipsis in play. Now, we can only make those words understood that have already appeared in the sentence in the same for. However, after “are” the verbs that can be used are “sold” or “selling”. However, none of these verb forms appear in the sentence anywhere. Hence, “are” is the incorrect helping verb.
Now, there can be a confusion regarding the usage of “sell”. “sell” means to “sell” something. When someone does the action of selling. There is another meaning of “sell” - to have a specific price; be offered for sale at the price indicated. For example: Leather boots sell for just \$30.
This is how “sell” has been used in the second part of the underlined portion.

PoE:

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are: Incorrect for the reason stated above.

(B) are priced to sell, and they have: Incorrect. “have” should be followed by “sold” but this word is not present anywhere in the sentence.

(C) are priced to sell, and they do: Correct. Helping verb “do” stands for “sell”, the word that already exists in the sentence.

(D) are being priced to sell, and have: Incorrect. Same error as choice B.

(E) had been priced to sell, and they have: Incorrect.
i. Use of past perfect tense “had been priced” is incorrect because there is no other event in past tense.
ii. Same error as in choice B.

Hope this helps.
Thanks.

Thank you for this post.
I have observed that this type of sentences that are divided in 2 parts (one stating a fact and the other referring to the first, by using ellipsis, verb tenses, and parallelism) tend to appear quite often in the Gmat.

- Is the method stated by you the one we should always for this type of questions?
- Do you have more examples of such questions?

Thank you so much!
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners   [#permalink] 31 Oct 2014, 17:01

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# In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners

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