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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut

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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   07 Apr 2022, 06:40
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Kushchokhani wrote:
ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-
shygo wrote:
In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell, and they are.

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are
(B) are priced to sell, and they have
(C) are priced to sell, and they do
(D) are being priced to sell, and have
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have



Show Spoiler
Attachment:
01.jpg


Concepts tested here: Tenses

• Correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.
• The present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.
• The simple present tense is used to indicate actions taking place in the current time frame, indicate habitual actions, state universal truths, and convey information that is permanent in nature.
• The Past perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb "had") is used when a sentence contains two actions in the past; the helping verb "had" is used with the action in the "greater past".

A: This answer choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have been priced" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.

B: This answer choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Further, Option B fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

C: Correct. This answer choice correctly uses the simple present tense verbs "are priced" and "do" to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame. Further, Option C avoids the verb construction error seen in Options B, D, and E, as it does not use a present perfect tense verb.

D: This answer choice incorrectly uses the simple present continuous tense verb "are being" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame but is not continuous; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the simple present continuous tense is used to refer to actions that are currently ongoing and continuous in nature. Further, Option D incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Additionally, Option D fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

E: This answer choice incorrectly uses the past perfect tense verb "had been priced" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the past perfect tense (marked by the use of helping verb "had") is used when a sentence contains two actions in the past; the helping verb "had" is used with the action in the "greater past". Further, Option E incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Additionally, Option E fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

Hence, C is the best answer choice.

To understand the concept of "Simple Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):



To understand the concept of "Simple Continuous Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):



To understand the concept of "Past Perfect Tense" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~2 minutes):



All the best!
Experts' Global Team


Hi ExpertsGlobal5

As per your explanation, in case of present perfect tense, action concludes in the past and its consequences continue in the present. However, as per my understanding, an action that began in the past and is still continuing is also covered by present perfect tense. In fact, in this question, "have cut prices" seems parallel to "have been priced", so your reasoning seems confusing.


Hello Kushchokhani,

We hope this finds you well.

To answer your query, it is actually the present perfect continuous tense ("have + been + present participle") that refers to actions that began in the past and continue into the present.

Further, the parallelism between "have cut" and "have been priced" is not needed, as the latter verb refers to an action that takes place in the current time frame, meaning it must be conveyed through the simple present tense; remember, verbs need not be in the same tense to be considered parallel; a sentence can use verbs of different tenses to refer to actions that take place in different time periods.

For example: "I was vaccinated today, and my brother will get vaccinated tomorrow."

Here, "was vaccinated" and "will get vaccinated" are parallel verbs, even though they are of different tenses.

To understand the concept of "Perfect Continuous Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):



All the best!
Experts' Global Team
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   11 Apr 2022, 04:29
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Kushchokhani wrote:
ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Further, your reasoning here - "have cut and have been priced- both actions concluded in past and affecting current events (past coming into present)
are (sold/selling)- this is current event (present)" - is correct.


ExpertsGlobal5

Thanks for the revert. If my reasoning that 'wines have been priced when their prices were cut in the past and are being sold at reduced prices now (effect of past)' is correct, then why is choice A incorrect? How can we assume that "priced" requires simple present tense?


Hello Kushchokhani,

We hope this finds you well.

To clarify, the order of events in this sentence is as follows - the vintners cut their prices (an action that continues to affect the present), so the wines are, currently, priced to sell, and the wines do sell.

Since we know that the act of cutting prices continues to affect the present, it makes more sense to interpret the wines being priced to sell as an action that takes place in the current time frame.

We hope this helps.
All the best!
Experts' Global Team
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   08 Jan 2013, 11:15
I agree with AdeelSilat, how on earth can wines sell themselves. So A can be the only correct answer. I know this is not OA however this questions is full of ****!
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   09 Apr 2013, 05:14
daagh wrote:
"Have been priced to sell, and they do" will still be incorrect. ‘Have been priced’ means, they have been priced from quite some time. ‘Are priced’ means, they are priced at the moment, (after the prices have been slashed). The logic is that if they have been priced to sell from the past, why did they not then sell in the past, necessitating a price slash” It is clear that the wines are selling only now. So the use of present perfect tense ‘have been priced’ changes the intent of the clause.


Hi daagh,

Request you to please validate my reasoning on the question posted above.

In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell.
and they do(sell).

I believe, that their wines have been priced to sell is correct usage of tense, since it shows the time frame of pricing the wines is same as that of cutting the prices. Obviously, Dealers must have cut prices in order to have a new discounted price that will cause the wines to sell. i.e Both actions must happen simultaneously.
However, the problem is with "do sell". Now, the phrase " do sell" shows that the action is happening at this moment. This is incorrect. The action must have started when the action of "pricing" started. i.e Cause -Effect must have started at the same time.

Thanks
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   09 Apr 2013, 09:46
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To answer your query, let ma ask you 1. to give a suitable verb that describes your reasoning. 2. Is that verb is applied in any of the choices here. 3 what verb you will use for a generalization that happened in the past or started in the past, continues today and is likely to do so in the future too. Let me give you some examples

The first example will be “ Messi has played well in the past, plays well now too and will do so in the future. Are we right in saying that Messy plays well;

The second example will be: The Sun rose in the east in the past; it rises in the east everyday and it will rise in the future too in the east. How can we describe such a phenomenon? Which is a better sentence?
The Sun has been rising in the east (or)
The Sun rises in the east
Apart from the nit-picking of the grammar issue here, I do believe that the modern concise writing style will take chocie C as the most appropriate.
Finally, isn't this Sentence Correction rather than Critical Reasoning?
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   16 Dec 2020, 09:43
In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell, and they are.

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are-> "have been" from past to present tense. It is incorrect.
(B) are priced to sell, and they have-> "have". why we are using "have". It is not making sense.
(C) are priced to sell, and they do-> "Are" is making sense, as "vintners have cut prices". "Do" is making sense also. Let's keep it.
(D) are being priced to sell, and have-> "being priced" is it still going on.
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have -> had been, we are not talking about past tense.

So, I think C. :)
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   29 Jan 2021, 00:45
Quote:
In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell, and they are.

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are

(C) are priced to sell, and they do


Request Expert Reply:
Hi honorable experts,
MartyTargetTestPrep, GMATNinja, GMATGuruNY, AjiteshArun, VeritasPrepHailey, BrightOutlookJenn,
In the correct choice C, to sell is not a verb; its an infinitive. Do is the verb. Do has been used here as pro-verb. So, how pro-verb is going to be used instead of infinitive?

Thanks in Advanced..
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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   07 Feb 2022, 01:02
Be careful regarding the “aardvark” sentence.

I’m not sure if it is still in the newer Manhattan Prep books, but that guideline has been controversial for a while.

See bottom of the page, second to last post and the instructor’s response ——>

https://www.manhattanprep.com/gmat/foru ... k&start=30

heyrohit wrote:
Ellipsis
Tom solves SC questions more efficiently than Marie does.
Here "does" is used in place of "solves" - Substitution

Tom solves SC questions more efficiently than Marie.
Here "does" has been omitted. The verb can be omitted from the comparison since the sentence does not result in any ambiguity after the omission. So as you can see above, such omission (also called as ellipsis) is done to make the sentence more crisp. And how do we make the sentence more crisp - by not repeating certain words that have already appeared once in the sentence. This applies really well when we have comparison or parallel constructions involving verbs. And hence we come to the main take away.

You can omit the words till the point the meaning is clear.

Tom adores his wife more than his mother does.
Here "does" is used in place of "adores" - Substitution

Tom adores his wife more than his mother.
Here "does" has been omitted. But is the meaning clear? What is the comparison here? Are we comparing how much Tom adores his wife vs how much he adores his mother. Or are we comparing how much Tom adores his wife vs how much his mother adores his wife. That is one of the two following sentences:

1: Tom adores his wife more than his mother does.
2: Tom adores his wife more than he adores his mother.

I hope this example set helped reinforce the takeaway stated above.

I have never seen an aardvark, but last year my father did
Now this sentence is wrong. And here is why. Here ellipsis/omission has not been applied correctly. Basically, the author has omitted the verb - see. (did see = saw) as shown below:
I have never seen an aardvark, but last year my father DID .

But notice, the verb "see" does not appear as is anywhere in the sentence. And you cannot omit something that does not exist.

Now let's take this other example sentence:
Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they are
What could have been omitted here? There is a verb from "to inspire". So the verb form "inspire" could have been omitted. But when I place this supposedly omitted word what do I get:
Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they are inspire. - This is absolutely incorrect.
Doing the same in the correct version - here is what we get.
Our cars were designed to inspire envy, and they do
Notice how putting back the omitted word makes perfect sense in the sentence.

https://gmatclub.com/forum/ellipsis-sub ... l#p1179228 (This helped me to understand the concept)


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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   13 Feb 2022, 01:38
Only option C makes sense since "do" refers to verb("to sell" in this case).
hence C
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   07 Apr 2022, 02:45
ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Dear Friends,

Here is a detailed explanation to this question-
shygo wrote:
In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell, and they are.

(A) have been priced to sell, and they are
(B) are priced to sell, and they have
(C) are priced to sell, and they do
(D) are being priced to sell, and have
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have



Show Spoiler
Attachment:
01.jpg


Concepts tested here: Tenses

• Correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.
• The present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.
• The simple present tense is used to indicate actions taking place in the current time frame, indicate habitual actions, state universal truths, and convey information that is permanent in nature.
• The Past perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb "had") is used when a sentence contains two actions in the past; the helping verb "had" is used with the action in the "greater past".

A: This answer choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have been priced" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present.

B: This answer choice incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Further, Option B fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

C: Correct. This answer choice correctly uses the simple present tense verbs "are priced" and "do" to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame. Further, Option C avoids the verb construction error seen in Options B, D, and E, as it does not use a present perfect tense verb.

D: This answer choice incorrectly uses the simple present continuous tense verb "are being" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame but is not continuous; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the simple present continuous tense is used to refer to actions that are currently ongoing and continuous in nature. Further, Option D incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Additionally, Option D fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

E: This answer choice incorrectly uses the past perfect tense verb "had been priced" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the past perfect tense (marked by the use of helping verb "had") is used when a sentence contains two actions in the past; the helping verb "had" is used with the action in the "greater past". Further, Option E incorrectly uses the present perfect tense verb "have (sold)" to refer to an action that takes place in the current time frame; please remember, the simple present tense is used to refer to actions that take place in the current time frame, and the present perfect tense (marked by the use of the helping verb “has/have”) is used to describe events that concluded in the past but continue to affect the present. Additionally, Option E fails to maintain the correct present perfect tense verb construction; please remember, the correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

Hence, C is the best answer choice.

To understand the concept of "Simple Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):



To understand the concept of "Simple Continuous Tenses" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~1 minute):



To understand the concept of "Past Perfect Tense" on GMAT, you may want to watch the following video (~2 minutes):



All the best!
Experts' Global Team


Hi ExpertsGlobal5

As per your explanation, in case of present perfect tense, action concludes in the past and its consequences continue in the present. However, as per my understanding, an action that began in the past and is still continuing is also covered by present perfect tense. In fact, in this question, "have cut prices" seems parallel to "have been priced", so your reasoning seems confusing.
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   09 Apr 2022, 04:11
egmat wrote:
Error Analysis:

Now let’s look at the errors in the original sentence:
The first past of the underlined portion says the wines have been priced to sell. The second part says “they are”. So here we have ellipsis in play. Now, we can only make those words understood that have already appeared in the sentence in the same for. However, after “are” the verbs that can be used are “sold” or “selling”. However, none of these verb forms appear in the sentence anywhere. Hence, “are” is the incorrect helping verb.


Hi egmat

This post is really very helpful. However, I came across another official question in which this logic does not work. Can you please throw some light on this? TIA
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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   09 Apr 2022, 07:00
Thanks ExpertsGlobal5 for the reply. Follow up queries-
ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Correct present perfect tense verb construction is "have + been + past participle" or "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice.

I think "been" is not required in the first double inverted commas in your original post because both the inverted commas state the same thing.

To reconfirm because this isn't covered in GMAT short videos, "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice means action concluded in the past but continue to affect the present? GMAT short video just states that "have + been" is present perfect continuous i.e. action is still continuing in the present, without touching upon past/present participle concept.

ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Further, the parallelism between "have cut" and "have been priced" is not needed, as the latter verb refers to an action that takes place in the current time frame, meaning it must be conveyed through the simple present tense; remember, verbs need not be in the same tense to be considered parallel; a sentence can use verbs of different tenses to refer to actions that take place in different time periods.

For example: "I was vaccinated today, and my brother will get vaccinated tomorrow."

Here, "was vaccinated" and "will get vaccinated" are parallel verbs, even though they are of different tenses.


Since "have + been + past participle" in the passive voice indicates action completed in the past but continue to affect the present, I applied this understanding to the question in hand.

"have been priced"- I thought that since prices have already been cut in the past and continue to affect the present, the latter verb would react similarly, i.e. inventory prices were revised in the past when they were cut in the past and continue to affect the present- thereby the usage of "have been priced" being correct.

Accordingly, the below would be logical:
have cut and have been priced- both actions concluded in past and affecting current events (past coming into present)
are (sold/selling)- this is current event (present)

PS. Applying ellipsis logic as given by egmat, I wouldn't have raised the above queries. But that logic does not seem full proof because in this official question, this logic seems to be not working.

Please respond. TIA.
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   10 Apr 2022, 12:27
ExpertsGlobal5 wrote:
Further, your reasoning here - "have cut and have been priced- both actions concluded in past and affecting current events (past coming into present)
are (sold/selling)- this is current event (present)" - is correct.


ExpertsGlobal5

Thanks for the revert. If my reasoning that 'wines have been priced when their prices were cut in the past and are being sold at reduced prices now (effect of past)' is correct, then why is choice A incorrect? How can we assume that "priced" requires simple present tense?
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   07 Apr 2023, 10:13
GMATNinja

Thank you for always writing such great solutions. I have some queries regarding verb substitution rules. Request if you can explain the same

1) Can forms of "do" refer back to any verb in the clause and not only to the main verb
2) Can forms of "do" refer back to a verb in any tense
3) Can forms of "be" and "has/ have" refer back only to verbs in their own respective forms

Thank you so much!
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Re: In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   22 Apr 2023, 02:32
GMATNinja wrote:
ShubhamAgarwal wrote:
GMATNinja

Thank you for always writing such great solutions. I have some queries regarding verb substitution rules. Request if you can explain the same

Can forms of "do" refer back to any verb in the clause and not only to the main verb

Can forms of "do" refer back to a verb in any tense

Can forms of "be" and "has/ have" refer back only to verbs in their own respective forms

Thank you so much!

For your first two questions: I don't see why not! There are certainly no definitive "rules" stating that you can't, so if you come across something one of these cases and the meaning makes sense, you should look for other decision points.

As for your third question, it sounds like you're asking about something like this:

    "Tim has been studying for five months, as is his neighbor."

Using a "to be" placeholder ("is") with a "has been" verb is confusing. Are we saying that the neighbor has been studying for five months too? Or just that the neighbor is studying right now? It's unclear, so you'd probably want to avoid something like this.

Does that mean this sort of thing is always wrong? Maybe. Maybe not.

Notice that my response is intentionally vague! We don't want to encourage you to come up with a list of immutable grammar rules that you can use to eliminate choices without thinking about the context of the question. That's a bad habit, and it won't help you in the long run.

So think about the placeholder verb carefully. What does it take the place of? Does that make sense? Is it confusing or open to interpretation?

When in doubt, be conservative and look for other decision points. It's easy to develop an over-reliance on invented "rules" that don't always work -- so I would be very careful not to turn SC into an exercise in memorization. You'll almost always need to think about the context of the sentence.

I hope that helps a bit!


GMATNinja Thank you so much. Makes a lot of sense!
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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink] New post   18 Aug 2023, 20:50
OFFICIAL ANSWER offcial guide for gmat review 13th edition page 748
In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners
have cut prices; their wines have been priced to sell,
and they are.
(A) have been priced to sell, and they are
(B) are priced to sell, and they have
(C) are priced to sell, and they do
(D) are being priced to sell, and have
(E) had been priced to sell, and they have
Verb form
In the underlined segment, the second verb does
not need to repeat the word sell because it is
understood from the previous verb phrase priced
to sell. However, the second verb must be
correctly conjugated with the understood sell.
They are sell is not a correct verb form; they do sell
is correct.
A They are would require selling to complete it,
not sell.
B They have would require sold to complete it,
not sell.
C Correct. This sentence properly uses they do
in place of they do sell, a grammatically
correct verb.
D Have would require sold to complete it, not
sell; omitting the subject they requires that
the comma be omitted as well.
E They have would require sold to complete it,
not sell; the past-perfect had been priced
suggests illogically that the wines were
already priced to sell before the vintners cut
prices; moreover, since the past-perfect tense
indicates that one event in the past occurred
prior to another event in the past, the pasttense
did would be required rather than the
present-tense have.
The correct answer is C.
GMATNinja Please Clarify. Official answer seems to be strict about using only "sell" to complete the ellipsis
They have used the term "correctly conjugated"
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In an effort to reduce their inventories, Italian vintners have cut [#permalink]
18 Aug 2023, 20:50
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