1) Is it safe to assume that if more than 50% of the terms within a set are BELOW the mean, then the mean is GREATER than the median?
2) Is it safe to assume that if more than 50% of the terms within a set are ABOVE the mean, then the mean is LESS than the median?
The answer is Yes, to both questions.
The definition of the median is in fact the 50th percentile of the data sample.
The Median is "exactly" in the middle, so 50% of the data are below, and the other 50% are above.
PhD in Applied Mathematics
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