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"In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
 17 Jul 2008, 06:20
Both are correct idioms as per OG. Does anyone know the difference ?
Reference OG-11th edition- 16- Look at the OE that mentions both "In contrast to" and "In contrast with" to be the correct idioms.
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
23 Nov 2009, 04:58
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D seems the better option to me: the fact that symphonies demostrate the use of something seems preferable to symphonies actually using something.
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
17 Jul 2008, 07:04
good catch!
from a GMAT grammar expert:
"In contrast to" is preferred to "in contrast with," although the latter is not strictly wrong.
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
20 Nov 2009, 11:09
I had the same doubt. I had also read that both the idioms are correct.
But in the following question which is the correct answer - D or E?
In Contrast to the symphonies of Haydn, a much freer use of dissonance is evident in the symphonies of Mahler.
A) In contrast to the symphonies of Haydn, a much freer use of dissonance is evident in the symphonies of Mahler.
B) In contrast with Haydn's symphonies, Mahler uses dissonance much more freely.
C) In Contrast to those of Haydn, the symphonies of Mahler demonstrate a much more free use of dissonance.
D) In contrast to Haydn's symphonies, Mahler's demonstrate a much freer use of dissonance.
E) In contrast with Haydn's symphonies, those of Mahler use dissonance much more freely.
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
08 Oct 2010, 16:50
This is an old thread, but I think the answer to the question on Mahler Vs Haydn is debatable. Kaplan 800 says the OA is D, and says in contrast with is incorrect, and that it should be in contrast to. However, it is clear from this thread that OG considers both these idioms correct (also confirmed by MGMAT 3rd edition SC pg 187 on idioms). In fact, per MGMAT (3rd edition, SC, Comparisons, Pg 164), More freely is right and Freer is wrong! (adverbs that take -ly form should use more -ly instead of -er form). So, clearly, the answer should be E and not D. Thoughts? (Especially on the more freely vs much freer part).
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
08 Oct 2010, 19:02
In contrast with is wrongly used here. Both idioms are correct but they have different meanings. 'contrast' is used as a noun in 'in contrast to' and as a verb in 'contrast with'. Refer : http://dictionary.reference.com/browse/contrast
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
10 Oct 2010, 15:47
I don't get how contrast is a noun in "in contrast to X, Y" and a verb in "in contrast with X, Y". Even if that were true, it doesn't explain why one idiom is correct and the other isn't correct. I am pretty sure this is an incorrect explanation in Kaplan 800, but I am wondering if there's some very subtle explanation I am missing here.
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with" [#permalink]
19 Oct 2010, 10:16
I think I can help clarify the distinction between "more freely" and "much freer" in this question. Remember that adverbs ("more freely") modify verbs, adjectives and other adverbs. In answer choice E, the adverb is correctly modifying the verb "use." Adjectives ("much freer") modify nouns. In answer choice D, the adjective is still modifying the word "use," but look closely -- in this construction, "use" is a noun, so the adjective is correct. Tricky! As many have mentioned, both "in contrast to" and "in contrast with" can be used correctly. The issue with E is, as arkadiyua noted, that symphonies can't actively use anything -- the composers use dissonance, and the symphonies demonstrate that use. Hope that helps!
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Re: "In contrast to" "In contrast with"
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19 Oct 2010, 10:16
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