In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in

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In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink]

03 Aug 2012, 16:11

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In the last decade there has been a significant
decrease in coffee consumption. During this same
time, there has been increasing publicity about the
adverse long-term effects on health of the caffeine in
coffee. Therefore, the decrease in coffee consumption
must have been caused by consumers' awareness of
the harmful effects of caffeine.

Which of the following, if true, most seriously calls into
question the explanation above?

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less
coffee today than they did 10 years ago.

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal
symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so
after significantly decreasing their coffee
consumption.

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held
steady as sales of regular brands have declined.

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free
herbal teas has increased over the past decade.

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past
decade because of unusually severe frosts in
coffee-growing nations.

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Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink]

03 Aug 2012, 17:51

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The argument states that the decrease in coffee consumption can only be explained by the sudden awareness amongst consumers that caffeine has adverse health effects. To weaken this argument we need an answer choice that provides a compelling alternative explanation.

(E) says that coffee prices have increased steadily in the past decade. Such an increase in price could push consumers away and therefore account for the decrease in coffee consumption.
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Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink]

06 Aug 2012, 03:33

(A) On average, people consume 30 percent less coffee today than they did 10 years ago. - Does not prove why the consumption of coffee has come down - Incorrect

(B) Heavy coffee drinkers may have mild withdrawal symptoms, such as headaches, for a day or so after significantly decreasing their coffee consumption. - Out of scope and Irrelevant information - Incorrect

(C) Sales of specialty types of coffee have held steady as sales of regular brands have declined. - Does not fill the gap between decreased coffee sales and awareness in people about harmful affects of caffine - Incorrect

(D) The consumption of fruit juices and caffeine-free herbal teas has increased over the past decade. - No direct relation can be assumed between increase in consumption of fruit jucies and decrease in consumption of coffee - Incorrect

(E) Coffee prices increased steadily in the past decade because of unusually severe frosts in coffee-growing nations. - Due to increase in coffee prices because of low produce, the consumption has also come down - Correct

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Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink]

20 Aug 2012, 03:04

got it down to C and E,

Negated C , my reason was that it does try to make you infer that may this is something to do with regular coffee , but does not directly point to causality.
E does that ... :lol:

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Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink]

23 Aug 2012, 10:28

Clear E , in weaking questions finding an alternative to the conclusion often helps
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Re: In the last decade there has been a significant decrease in [#permalink] 23 Aug 2012, 10:28

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