is 0 multiple of everything?

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is 0 multiple of everything? [#permalink]

18 May 2007, 11:50

Hi,
I had a question that really confused me. Is 0 multiple of everything? Like multiple of 5, -193432, 8/9 and etc. In questions which ask for common multiples of A and B, should I consider 0 too?
Thank you.

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18 May 2007, 12:16

read more at:

http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/60913.html

I don't know if thats the GMAT official standpoint.

:-D

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30 May 2007, 01:15

Does someone know what the official GMAC standpoint is?

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30 May 2007, 09:04

KillerSquirrel wrote:

read more at:

http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/60913.html

I don't know if thats the GMAT official standpoint.

:-D

page 108 of OG:

if x and y are integers and x doesnt = 0, then x is a divisor of y provided that y=xn for some integer n. In this case, y is also said to be divisible by x or to be a multiple of x. so "y" is a multiple if a nonzero integer times another integer = y.

28=7*4 7 is a divisor/factor of 28 and 28 is a multiple of 7.

it doesn't say that any of the integers have to be unique, so:

0=x*0
0=333*0 etc.. etc..

that is how I am interperting it.

zero is a multiple of every # and every number is a multiple of zero

y=x*0

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30 May 2007, 09:54

gmatiscoming wrote:

KillerSquirrel wrote:

read more at:

http://mathforum.org/library/drmath/view/60913.html

I don't know if thats the GMAT official standpoint.

:-D

I agree that 0 is a multiple of every #, but I don't believe every # is a multiple of zero because any # divided by zero is undefined. Is that correct?

[#permalink] 30 May 2007, 09:54

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is 0 multiple of everything?

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