Is 0.n68<1/n? 1). n<5 2). 0.n68<1/n^2 : DS Archive
Check GMAT Club Decision Tracker for the Latest School Decision Releases http://gmatclub.com/AppTrack

 It is currently 21 Jan 2017, 01:58

### GMAT Club Daily Prep

#### Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

# Events & Promotions

###### Events & Promotions in June
Open Detailed Calendar

# Is 0.n68<1/n? 1). n<5 2). 0.n68<1/n^2

 post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics
Author Message
Senior Manager
Joined: 22 Nov 2005
Posts: 476
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 20 [0], given: 0

Is 0.n68<1/n? 1). n<5 2). 0.n68<1/n^2 [#permalink]

### Show Tags

27 May 2006, 13:32
00:00

Difficulty:

(N/A)

Question Stats:

0% (00:00) correct 0% (00:00) wrong based on 0 sessions

### HideShow timer Statistics

This topic is locked. If you want to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum.

Is 0.n68<1/n?
1). n<5
2). 0.n68<1/n^2
SVP
Joined: 01 May 2006
Posts: 1797
Followers: 9

Kudos [?]: 149 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

27 May 2006, 13:48
I go on (B)

(1) n<5
n=1 or 2 or 3 or 4

for n= 1 or 2, the inequality is verified
for n=3 or above, the inequality is not verified
Not Sufficient

(2) 0,n68 < 1/n^2
Only n=1 works with it.

As we know n, so we can conclude 0,n68 < 1/n
Manager
Joined: 25 Apr 2006
Posts: 50
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 2 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

27 May 2006, 14:27
I'll go with E.

if n=0 the expression goes to infinity which is indeterminate.
Director
Joined: 10 Oct 2005
Posts: 528
Location: US
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 58 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

27 May 2006, 21:28
I will go with B...n wont be zero. Typically GMAT exam will make that assumption...
Senior Manager
Joined: 08 Jun 2004
Posts: 497
Location: Europe
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 72 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

27 May 2006, 22:27
yessuresh wrote:
I'll go with E.

if n=0 the expression goes to infinity which is indeterminate.

Hey dude, n cab bot be equal to 0, we can not divide any number by zero.
Manager
Joined: 31 Mar 2006
Posts: 162
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 19 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

29 May 2006, 01:45
The ques is asking Is .n68<1/n and not for what value of n.

It should be E.
Please correct me if i am wrong.
Manager
Joined: 11 Oct 2005
Posts: 94
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 4 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

31 May 2006, 18:10
amansingla4 wrote:
The ques is asking Is .n68<1/n and not for what value of n.

It should be E.
Please correct me if i am wrong.

I go with B. The statement only works with B and the question is asking if we have enough information to answer the question. Since with B we know that n=1 we plug that back into the question and find that 0.168 is indeed less than 1 and sufficient to answer the question. Hope this helps.
Intern
Joined: 04 May 2006
Posts: 49
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

02 Jun 2006, 12:17
I go with E.
Putting 1 & 4 in eqn 1 gives two different answers.
similarly, putting 1 & 4 in eqn 2 gives 2 diff answeres.
so It can't be answers even combining them together.
_________________

If A equals success, then the formula is: A = X + Y + Z, X is work. Y is play. Z is keep your mouth shut.
Albert Einstein

Manager
Joined: 10 May 2006
Posts: 186
Location: USA
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 5 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

03 Jun 2006, 20:25
I go with E as well.

Both 1 and 4 work as n.

If n= 1, then the answer is Yes
If n = 4, the answer is no

Two different answers - E
SVP
Joined: 03 Jan 2005
Posts: 2243
Followers: 16

Kudos [?]: 325 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

05 Jun 2006, 06:29
yessuresh wrote:
I'll go with E.

if n=0 the expression goes to infinity which is indeterminate.

For this question we should infer that n is a number from 1 to 9. The fact that 1/n is included in the stem has precluded the possibility of n=0. For GMAT remember if something appears in the denominator, it is non zero. However, if you see something like n*0.n68<1, you cannot devide both sides by n while assuming n is non-zero.
_________________

Keep on asking, and it will be given you;
keep on seeking, and you will find;
keep on knocking, and it will be opened to you.

Manager
Joined: 05 Jun 2006
Posts: 69
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 1 [0], given: 0

### Show Tags

05 Jun 2006, 07:30
The answer is B.

In fact, in the decimal represtentation of a number, n is a positive integer from 0 to 9.

If the second statement is true, n=1. For n=0 the expression is nonsense, because you cannot divide by 0.

Note that in evaluating the sufficiency of the first statement you have to consider the case n=0, because n<5 does not exclude this possibility. Whereas, in evaluating the sufficiency of the second statement, you haven't to consider n=0, because for n=0 the hypothesis you should assume to be true would not be verified.
05 Jun 2006, 07:30
Display posts from previous: Sort by

# Is 0.n68<1/n? 1). n<5 2). 0.n68<1/n^2

 post reply Question banks Downloads My Bookmarks Reviews Important topics

 Powered by phpBB © phpBB Group and phpBB SEO Kindly note that the GMAT® test is a registered trademark of the Graduate Management Admission Council®, and this site has neither been reviewed nor endorsed by GMAC®.