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Is 0 (zero) to be considered as a multiple of every number? [#permalink]

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03 Nov 2010, 05:45

1

This post received KUDOS

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?
_________________

Give [highlight]KUDOS [/highlight] if you like my post.

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?

An integer \(a\) is a multiple of an integer \(b\) means that \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\): so, as 0 divided by any integer (except zero itself) yields an integer then yes, zero is a multiple of every integer (except zero itself).

Also on GMAT when we are told that \(a\) is divisible by \(b\) (or which is the same: "\(a\) is multiple of \(b\)", or "\(b\) is a factor of \(a\)"), we can say that: 1. \(a\) is an integer; 2. \(b\) is an integer; 3. \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\).

Re: Is 0 (zero) to be considered as a multiple of every number? [#permalink]

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13 Mar 2014, 01:54

Bunuel wrote:

siyer wrote:

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?

An integer \(a\) is a multiple of an integer \(b\) means that \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\): so, as 0 divided by any integer (except zero itself) yields an integer then yes, zero is a multiple of every integer (except zero itself).

Also on GMAT when we are told that \(a\) is divisible by \(b\) (or which is the same: "\(a\) is multiple of \(b\)", or "\(b\) is a factor of \(a\)"), we can say that: 1. \(a\) is an integer; 2. \(b\) is an integer; 3. \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\).

Hope it helps.

Dear Bunuel,

And the first factor of any number(>=0) is 1. am I right?

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?

An integer \(a\) is a multiple of an integer \(b\) means that \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\): so, as 0 divided by any integer (except zero itself) yields an integer then yes, zero is a multiple of every integer (except zero itself).

Also on GMAT when we are told that \(a\) is divisible by \(b\) (or which is the same: "\(a\) is multiple of \(b\)", or "\(b\) is a factor of \(a\)"), we can say that: 1. \(a\) is an integer; 2. \(b\) is an integer; 3. \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\).

Hope it helps.

Dear Bunuel,

And the first factor of any number(>=0) is 1. am I right?

thanks Sid

Yes, the smallest factor, the smallest positive divisor of any positive integer is 1.
_________________

Re: Is 0 (zero) to be considered as a multiple of every number? [#permalink]

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05 Sep 2014, 03:16

Bunuel wrote:

siyer wrote:

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?

An integer \(a\) is a multiple of an integer \(b\) means that \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\): so, as 0 divided by any integer (except zero itself) yields an integer then yes, zero is a multiple of every integer (except zero itself).

Also on GMAT when we are told that \(a\) is divisible by \(b\) (or which is the same: "\(a\) is multiple of \(b\)", or "\(b\) is a factor of \(a\)"), we can say that: 1. \(a\) is an integer; 2. \(b\) is an integer; 3. \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\).

I just got a question on a practice test wrong because I didn't consider 0 (zero) to be a multiple of 5 (or any integer for that matter). So, what's the rule on the GMAT?

Do we consider 0 to be a multiple of every number?

An integer \(a\) is a multiple of an integer \(b\) means that \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\): so, as 0 divided by any integer (except zero itself) yields an integer then yes, zero is a multiple of every integer (except zero itself).

Also on GMAT when we are told that \(a\) is divisible by \(b\) (or which is the same: "\(a\) is multiple of \(b\)", or "\(b\) is a factor of \(a\)"), we can say that: 1. \(a\) is an integer; 2. \(b\) is an integer; 3. \(\frac{a}{b}=integer\).

Hope it helps.

Hi, Then why LCM of two numbers not zero?

By definition the lowest common multiple of two integers a and b is the smallest positive integer that is a multiple both of a and of b.
_________________

Re: Is 0 (zero) to be considered as a multiple of every number? [#permalink]

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17 Sep 2016, 07:02

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