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# Is 1/(a-b)<b-a? 1. a<b 2. 1< la-bl

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SVP
Joined: 05 Jul 2006
Posts: 1519
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Kudos [?]: 114 [0], given: 39

Is 1/(a-b)<b-a? 1. a<b 2. 1< la-bl [#permalink]  10 Aug 2009, 09:56
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Question Stats:

50% (02:19) correct 50% (01:06) wrong based on 7 sessions
Is 1/(a-b)<b-a?

1. a<b
2. 1< la-bl
Current Student
Joined: 13 Jan 2009
Posts: 374
Location: India
Followers: 19

Kudos [?]: 85 [0], given: 1

Re: good inquality ds [#permalink]  10 Aug 2009, 13:07
I feel A.

If b>a then b-a will be positive and 1/-ve will be negative so A is suff.

While on the other hand 1<la-bl is (-infi, -1) U(1, infi) this will give mixed results so A is sufficient.
Intern
Joined: 13 Aug 2008
Posts: 9
Followers: 0

Kudos [?]: 0 [0], given: 0

Re: good inquality ds [#permalink]  10 Aug 2009, 13:47
this is a situation similar to (1/(-x)) < x.

This can only b true if x>0..

Here, x = b-a

so, b-a> 0
or b>a
Manager
Joined: 10 Jul 2009
Posts: 129
Location: Ukraine, Kyiv
Followers: 2

Kudos [?]: 57 [0], given: 60

Re: good inquality ds [#permalink]  10 Sep 2009, 08:21
As far as I understood, the second answer choice has absolute value in it, right?
If so, then A for me. Please,yezz, post an OA.
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Senior Manager
Joined: 16 Apr 2009
Posts: 341
Followers: 1

Kudos [?]: 68 [0], given: 14

Re: good inquality ds [#permalink]  10 Sep 2009, 15:19
A is sufficient to answer , B will give mixed results
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Re: good inquality ds   [#permalink] 10 Sep 2009, 15:19
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# Is 1/(a-b)<b-a? 1. a<b 2. 1< la-bl

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