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Statement two says that a*c <0 so one of the numbers must be negative, all could be negative as well:
-8 * -6 * -4 = -192 which is divisible by 32 as per GMAT definition y=xq+r when q and r are unique integers and 0<=r<x ( -192=32*-6 + 0)
-6*-4*-2 =-48 which is not divisible by 32.
Taken together we have that they are consecutive, and that one is negative and the other is not. Because of the restriction of being consecutive and even we have only one possible set of numbers: -2,0,2.
abc =0. 0 is divisable by any integer except zero. so the answer was C.
tricky problem and I would have no doubt gotten this wrong on the test if i didn't have 10 minutes to sit and think about it
Statements (1) and (2) combined are sufficient. From S1 + S2 it follows that either a or c is negative. As a , b, and C are consecutive even integers, one of these three numbers must be 0. Thus, abc=0 which is divisible by 32
and what on earth explanation ! Mind blown!!!
Re: Is a*b*c divisible by 32?
21 Oct 2014, 08:14