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(1) m - 3z > 0. Insufficient on its own. (2) 4z - m > 0. Insufficient on its own.

(1)+(2) Remember we can add inequalities with the sign in the same direction --> m-3z+4z-m>0 --> z>0, so z is positive. From (1) m>3z=positive, so m is positive too (m is more than some positive number 3z, so it's positive) --> m+z=positive+positive>0. Sufficient.

When I took both statements and in my head made the stipulations, I ended up with 3z<m<4z, but that did not yield the right answer. Can you tell me what I am missing doing this vs. actually adding the equations?

(1) m - 3z > 0. Insufficient on its own. (2) 4z - m > 0. Insufficient on its own.

(1)+(2) Remember we can add inequalities with the sign in the same direction --> m-3z+4z-m>0 --> z>0, so z is positive. From (1) m>3z=positive, so m is positive too (m is more than some positive number 3z, so it's positive) --> m+z=positive+positive>0. Sufficient.

When I took both statements and in my head made the stipulations, I ended up with 3z<m<4z, but that did not yield the right answer. Can you tell me what I am missing doing this vs. actually adding the equations?

You missed the last step: from 3z<4z it follows that z>0, thus 3z=positive --> (3z=positive)<m --> m=positive --> m+z=positive. _________________

(1) m - 3z > 0. Insufficient on its own. (2) 4z - m > 0. Insufficient on its own.

(1)+(2) Remember we can add inequalities with the sign in the same direction --> m-3z+4z-m>0 --> z>0, so z is positive. From (1) m>3z=positive, so m is positive too (m is more than some positive number 3z, so it's positive) --> m+z=positive+positive>0. Sufficient.

I have a doubt: 1 & 2 are obviously insuff. Combining 1 & 2 we get z>0. Now according to 1) m-3z>0 (so we get m>0). My doubt starts here 2) says 4z-m>0 so when z>0, m>0 or m<0. For eg z=2 & m=-2, we will still get 4z-m>0 So according to me answer should be E or am I missing something here.

(1) m - 3z > 0. Insufficient on its own. (2) 4z - m > 0. Insufficient on its own.

(1)+(2) Remember we can add inequalities with the sign in the same direction --> m-3z+4z-m>0 --> z>0, so z is positive. From (1) m>3z=positive, so m is positive too (m is more than some positive number 3z, so it's positive) --> m+z=positive+positive>0. Sufficient.

I have a doubt: 1 & 2 are obviously insuff. Combining 1 & 2 we get z>0. Now according to 1) m-3z>0 (so we get m>0). My doubt starts here 2) says 4z-m>0 so when z>0, m>0 or m<0. For eg z=2 & m=-2, we will still get 4z-m>0 So according to me answer should be E or am I missing something here.

Bunuel my line of reasoning was that the numbers are aligned like 3z<m<4z. Now m falls between 3z and 4z which can only be possible if both m and z are positive ( as the multiplier is positive). Now adding two positive numbers will always be more than 0 . Hence both are sufficient to prove

Re: Is m+z > 0 (1) m-3z > 0 (2) 4z-m > 0 [#permalink]
30 Nov 2014, 05:48

Bunuel wrote:

smitakokne wrote:

Is m+z > 0

1. m-3z > 0 2. 4z-m > 0

OA : C

Need help in underdstanding how we arrive at C.

(1) m - 3z > 0. Insufficient on its own. (2) 4z - m > 0. Insufficient on its own.

(1)+(2) Remember we can add inequalities with the sign in the same direction --> m-3z+4z-m>0 --> z>0, so z is positive. From (1) m>3z=positive, so m is positive too (m is more than some positive number 3z, so it's positive) --> m+z=positive+positive>0. Sufficient.

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