Sorry this is probably as silly as it gets but i need help in understanding the below
In x^7 > x^8, say we divide by x^6,
Now 0>x and 0>(x-1)
for 0>x-1 ==> x <1, till here i am fine
but how do we get x>0 to make 0<x<1 ??
Till here you are fine x> x^2 so x^2-x<0
we have to solve this, and to solve let me use an old trick.
Lets solve x^2-x=0,x(x-1)=0
so x=1 or x=0. Now because the sign of x^2 is + and the operator is < we take the INTERNAL
Remember: to solve inequalities like this (x^2) treat them like equations (replace <,> with = ) then, once you have the results take a look at the sign of x^2 an the operator.
(<,-) or (>,+) take ESTERNAL values. (if they are the "same"
(>,-) or (<,+) take INTERNAL values(like this case).
Let me know if it's clear now
It is beyond a doubt that all our knowledge that begins with experience.
Kant , Critique of Pure Reason
Tips and tricks: Inequalities , Mixture | Review: MGMAT workshop
Strategy: SmartGMAT v1.0 | Questions: Verbal challenge SC I-II- CR New SC set out !! , My Quant
Rules for Posting in the Verbal Forum - Rules for Posting in the Quant Forum[/size][/color][/b]