Can someone help me?
I have found interesting question and thing that official explanation contains a mistake:
The roots of the inequality are: 1, 2 and 3.
1) First statement refers to positive sector from 1 to 2 exclusively, so the data tell us that inequality is positive – sufficient!
2) Second statement tells us that in region from 2 to 3 exclusively the inequality is negative, in point 2 it is equal to 0. Since we have “≤” both is acceptable – sufficient!
Hence, my answer is D.
Unfortunately the official answer is A!
Source: Nova's Gmat Data Sufficiency Prep Course
Did I miss something?