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I agree that A is suff but shouldnt B is also be suff.

x+y>z is nothng but x+y-z>0 and if x,y or z is negative or positive in this particular condition , when each of them is raised to the power of 4, the condition of x^4+y^4>z^4 is satisfied.

I agree that A is suff but shouldnt B is also be suff.

x+y>z is nothng but x+y-z>0 and if x,y or z is negative or positive in this particular condition , when each of them is raised to the power of 4, the condition of x^4+y^4>z^4 is satisfied.

If x = 1, y = 1, and z = -4, then (x+y) > z, but x^4 + y^4 < z^4.
If x = 2, y = 2, and z = 2, then (x+y) > z, and x^4 + y+4 > z^4.

Statement 2 alone is insufficient. _________________

i ended up squaring inequality in another question and made mistake, can we square inequalities in general

your approach doe snot look worng but my examples of numbers picked show that given statement is not true

To answer your question, no we cannot square inequalities in general, because if they are both negative, squaring will not hold the inequality.

However, in this case, I think it's ok because we have x^2, y^2 and z^2, which are all positive since they are squares. For all positives, squaring should hold the inequality.