I got this question from one of the GMAT Challenges: Is x>y^2?
 x > (y+5)
 x^2 - y^2=0
The explanation makes sense up to a point. Clearly, stmt 1 is insufficient. Also, stmt 2 is insufficient. However, the explanation says that together they are sufficient because from stmt 2 we know that the |x|=|y| and putting this together with stmt 1 we know that x is positive and y is negative and neither is equal to zero. Then it says, "Therefore, x > y^2 is true." Here's my question:
How does that make x > y^2? If x is 2, then per stmt  y < -3. Let's say y = -4, then y^2=16. How can x > y^2 be true?
Any help is appreciated!
x = 2 and y = -4 are not correct.
only correct combination for x and y is x = -y and y is negative and less than -2.5
no dispute with A that it is insuff.
st. 2, if x = y= 5, x > y^2 is not true. if x = - y, then also not true. but x = y = 0.5, then it is true. so still insuff..
from i and ii, x = -y but y is smaller than -2.5. so in such condition, x > y^2 is not true.
therefore C makes sense.