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Re: Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve?? 1) x*y >0 2)xyz>0 [#permalink]
yezz wrote:
Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve??

1) x*y >0
2)xyz>0

B

signs of xyz or x/yz or xy/z etc will always be same.

so for the sign purpose we can consider -x/(-y)(-z) as (-xyz)

B clearly says that xyz > 0 so
(-xyz) will always be less than 0, so will be -x/(-y)(-z)
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Re: Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve?? 1) x*y >0 2)xyz>0 [#permalink]
ps_dahiya wrote:
yezz wrote:
Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve??

1) x*y >0
2)xyz>0

B

signs of xyz or x/yz or xy/z etc will always be same.

so for the sign purpose we can consider -x/(-y)(-z) as (-xyz)

B clearly says that xyz > 0 so
(-xyz) will always be less than 0, so will be -x/(-y)(-z)


suppose y,z are both negative, -1, -1 and x is positive 1

-1/(- -1)*(- -1) the entire sum is negative..

IMO it should be C..
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Re: Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve?? 1) x*y >0 2)xyz>0 [#permalink]
nice ralley everyone.

The OA is B

HOPE YOU ENJOYED IT
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Re: Is -x/(-y)(-z) -ve?? 1) x*y >0 2)xyz>0 [#permalink]
if we simplified

-x/(-y*-z) to -x/yz = -1(x/yz)

and since x/yz will always be positive then -1(x/yz)
will always be negative

that is the OE



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