Just something I picked up in an article... "With him : GMAT Sentence Correction (SC)
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# Just something I picked up in an article... "With him

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Manager
Joined: 30 Jan 2006
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Just something I picked up in an article... "With him [#permalink]

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07 Apr 2006, 06:00
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Just something I picked up in an article...

"With him being in that office for so long and being in touch with the students, I don't think I can tell him anything he doesn't already know."

1. him
2. his

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VP
Joined: 29 Dec 2005
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07 Apr 2006, 09:34
Just something I picked up in an article...

"With him being in that office for so long and being in touch with the students, I don't think I can tell him anything he doesn't already know."

1. him
2. his

his. "his being" is the clue that says the he is in that office for so long. him being means something else.
Director
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07 Apr 2006, 11:37
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well

http://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping
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07 Apr 2006, 15:06
I think before "being" you need a possessive pronoun.
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08 Apr 2006, 12:34
selene wrote:
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well

http://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?
Director
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08 Apr 2006, 12:50
selene wrote:
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well

http://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?

Gerund means "the -ing form of the verb" and it is a noun from now on, not a verb anymore.

In this sentence, you should pay attention to the meaning. "his being" means "his existance". "him being" is totally something different..
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08 Apr 2006, 16:01
selene wrote:
it should be "his being". That's how we use pronouns before a gerund. Also this question may be helpful as well

http://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=27429&highlight=helping

Correct, possessive pronouns are used before gerunds. But my problem is, how the heck do people recognize that being acts as a gerund (noun) here? I am guessing that the preposition tells you that it is a gerund, as examplified in this case as well:

Everyone of us has understood that without his helping us we would not have succeeded in our program over the past six months.

Correct?

This also means that "being" is 99% ruled out in GMAT but that 1% questions may be of this type.....

I doubt if being is a GERUND 'cos Gerund acts as a noun.

The rule I vaguely remember
[b]Objective forms of pronouns are usually used after verbs.
For eg: The teacher hated Sunil and me(used the objedtive form of "I")

But the exception to this rule is verb â€œbeâ€
08 Apr 2006, 16:01
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